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NUR198 Master Study Guide

All Modules 1–13 · Every Exam KCR (Summer 2026) · Deepest dive on Modules 11–13 · NGN + dosage practice

How to use: Browse By Topic (module by module) or By Exam (Exam 1–5 + Final). Tap a card to expand, check the box when you've mastered it — progress saves automatically. Modules 11–13 are the extra-deep sections. Every disorder follows the KCR framework: causes → patho → s/s → diagnostics → management → nursing priorities → teaching.

🎯 Final Exam Key Concepts Review sorted by deliverable

Your Key Concepts document says that for all disorders you are responsible for six things. The rest of this page is sorted by module; these six sections are sorted the other way, so you can take one lens and run it across everything — every pathophysiology, then every set of manifestations, and so on. Tap any topic name to jump to its card. Tick the box when that one lens is solid for that topic; it saves on this device.

The exam also includes dosage / math calculation problems and NGN-style questions. Those are not per-disorder, so they are not in the lists below — drill them in the Mega Quiz (filter to 💥 Dosage Calc) and in the Module 2 IV Fluid Therapy + I&O / Rate Math card.

🔬 Pathophysiology 80 topics

What is actually going wrong in the body, and why that produces this picture. If you can say the mechanism out loud, the signs stop needing memorising.

A few of these are procedures or skills rather than diseases — they are marked procedure. For those, read this heading as what it does and why it is ordered (and, for manifestations, what tells you it is going wrong).

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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🔎 Diagnostic Procedures / Tests 80 topics

What is ordered to find it or follow it — labs, imaging, scopes — plus what you do before and after, and the value that means trouble.

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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🩺 Clinical Manifestations 80 topics

What you would see, hear and measure. Include the early sign and the late sign, because exams live on the difference.

A few of these are procedures or skills rather than diseases — they are marked procedure. For those, read this heading as what it does and why it is ordered (and, for manifestations, what tells you it is going wrong).

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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💊 Medical Management 80 topics

What the provider orders: drugs, procedures, surgery, diet. Not your job to prescribe it, very much your job to know it.

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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⭐ Nursing Management & Priorities of Care 80 topics

Your actions, in order. When a question asks "which action first", this is the section it is testing.

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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🗣️ Client Teaching / Education 80 topics

What the client goes home knowing. Diet, drug rules, warning signs, when to call.

Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance

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Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument

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Modules 4–6 · Respiratory

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Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary

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Module 10 · Hepatobiliary

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders

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Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders

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Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma

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Module 1 · Older Adult, Chronic Illness & Disability Exam 1

Expected Physiological Changes of Aging ★ High-yield

Normal aging — by system

  • Cardio: stiffer vessels → ↑systolic BP, slower HR response to stress, orthostatic hypotension (fall risk — rise slowly)
  • Resp: ↓lung elasticity, weaker cough, ↓cilia → pneumonia & aspiration risk
  • Renal: ↓GFR (drugs clear slower!), nocturia, ↓thirst sensation → dehydration risk
  • GI: ↓motility (constipation), ↓saliva, ↓intrinsic factor → B12 deficiency
  • Neuro: slower processing is normal — confusion is NEVER normal aging (work it up: infection? meds? hypoxia?)
  • Skin/MSK: thin fragile skin, ↓subcut fat, ↓bone density, ↓muscle mass → falls, fractures, pressure injuries, hypothermia
  • Senses: presbyopia, presbycusis (hear low tones better — speak low and slow, face the client), ↓taste/smell

Nursing management

  • Fall prevention bundle: assess risk, clutter-free, adequate lighting, nonslip footwear, call light in reach
  • Skin: reposition q2h, minimal tape, moisturize; med doses often lower ("start low, go slow")
⭐ New-onset confusion in an older adult = suspect UTI, infection, hypoxia, or medication effect FIRST — not "just aging" and not dementia.
Delirium vs Dementia ★ High-yield
DeliriumDementia
OnsetSudden (hours–days)Gradual (months–years)
CourseFluctuates through the day; worse at nightSlowly progressive; stable day to day
AttentionImpaired — hallmarkIntact early
CauseReversible: infection (UTI!), meds, dehydration, hypoxia, surgery/anesthesiaIrreversible brain changes (Alzheimer most common)
TreatmentFind and fix the causeSupport function, safety, routines

Nursing care (both)

  • Reorient calmly, consistent caregivers, clocks/calendars, glasses/hearing aids ON, day-night routine, family at bedside
  • Avoid restraints and unnecessary sedatives (worsen both); safety = wandering precautions for dementia
Polypharmacy, Abuse & Ageism

Polypharmacy

  • Multiple meds + multiple prescribers + ↓renal/hepatic clearance = adverse events; anticholinergics, sedatives, opioids = Beers-list caution (falls, confusion)
  • Nursing: full med reconciliation every visit — include OTC + herbals; watch for a "prescribing cascade" (new drug to treat another drug's side effect)

Elder abuse

  • Types: physical, emotional, sexual, financial, neglect (most common); abuser is usually a known caregiver
  • Red flags: injuries inconsistent with story, delays seeking care, poor hygiene/dehydration, caregiver answers all questions, fear of caregiver
  • Nurses are mandatory reporters — interview the client alone; report suspicion (you don't have to prove it)

Ageism

  • Stereotyping by age → undertreated pain, dismissed symptoms. Assess the person, not the birth year.
Chronic Illness & Disability Management
  • Chronic = lasts ≥3 months (usually lifelong), fluctuates through remissions/exacerbations; goal = manage, not cure — maximize function and quality of life
  • Trajectory phases: onset → stable → unstable → acute flare → comeback → downward → dying; nursing focus shifts by phase
  • Self-management support = the core: teach-back method, simplify regimens, address cost/access barriers, involve family/caregivers
  • Watch caregiver strain; connect to community resources; depression and social isolation are common — screen for both

Module 2 · Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid–Base Balance Exam 1

More Fluid & Electrolyte graphics 1 graphics
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Fluid Volume: Hypovolemia vs Hypervolemia ★ High-yield
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Signs & Symptoms FVO vs. FVDDrive ↗ 🔍⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
Hypovolemia (deficit)Hypervolemia (overload)
CausesVomiting, diarrhea, hemorrhage, diuretics, burns, poor intakeHeart failure, renal failure, excess IV fluids/Na⁺, cirrhosis
S/S↑HR, ↓BP, orthostatic, ↑ urine specific gravity, dry mucosa, ↓skin turgor, ↓UOP, weight lossBounding pulse, ↑BP, JVD, crackles, edema, dyspnea, weight gain
PriorityIsotonic fluids (NS/LR), safety (falls), monitor UOPRestrict Na⁺/fluid, diuretics, daily weight, semi-Fowler, O₂
Daily weight is the best indicator of fluid status — 1 kg = ~1 L. Same scale, same time, same clothing.
Potassium (3.5–5.0) — Hypo vs Hyper ★ High-yield
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Hypokalemia <3.5Hyperkalemia >5.0
CausesDiuretics, vomiting/diarrhea, NG suction, insulinRenal failure, K⁺-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, tissue damage, acidosis
S/SMuscle weakness/cramps, ↓reflexes, flat T waves, U waves, ileus, arrhythmiasMuscle weakness, peaked T waves, wide QRS, bradycardia → arrest
NursingReplace K⁺ (NEVER IV push — always diluted/pump, max ~10 mEq/hr; give oral with food); cardiac monitorRestrict K⁺; kayexalate; IV calcium gluconate (protects heart); insulin+D50, albuterol shift K⁺ in; dialysis
🚨 IV potassium is NEVER pushed — always diluted and on a pump. Assess urine output before giving (no pee, no K⁺).
Sodium (135–145) — Hypo vs Hyper
  • Hyponatremia <135: neuro (confusion, seizures, headache) from cell swelling. Causes: SIADH, excess water, diuretics. Tx: fluid restriction; hypertonic (3%) saline only for severe — correct SLOWLY (rapid = osmotic demyelination)
  • Hypernatremia >145: thirst, dry mucosa, restless→lethargy, seizures. Causes: dehydration, ↓water intake, DI. Tx: hypotonic fluids/water, correct slowly (rapid = cerebral edema)
⭐ Sodium = the neuro electrolyte. "Where sodium goes, water follows."
Calcium (9–10.5) & Magnesium (1.3–2.1)
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  • Hypocalcemia: ↑neuromuscular excitability — +Trousseau (BP cuff→hand spasm), +Chvostek (cheek tap→twitch), tetany, laryngospasm, seizures. Causes: thyroid/parathyroid surgery, renal failure. Tx: IV calcium gluconate
  • Hypercalcemia: "moans, groans, stones, bones" — weakness, ↓reflexes, kidney stones, constipation. Causes: hyperparathyroid, cancer, immobility. Tx: hydrate, ambulate, bisphosphonates
  • Calcium and phosphorus are inverse; calcium and magnesium act the same direction clinically
  • Hypomagnesemia: like hypocalcemia (tremor, +Chvostek/Trousseau, torsades). Hypermagnesemia: ↓reflexes, ↓BP, resp depression (classic in preeclampsia Mg therapy → antidote calcium gluconate)
Acid–Base / ABG Interpretation ★ High-yield

Normals

  • pH 7.35–7.45 · PaCO₂ 35–45 (respiratory) · HCO₃ 22–26 (metabolic)

ROME shortcut

  • Respiratory Opposite: pH & CO₂ move opposite ways
  • Metabolic Equal: pH & HCO₃ move the same way
DisorderpHCause examples
Resp acidosis↓ (↑CO₂)Hypoventilation, COPD, opioid overdose, OSA
Resp alkalosis↑ (↓CO₂)Hyperventilation, anxiety, pain, early sepsis
Metabolic acidosis↓ (↓HCO₃)DKA, renal failure, diarrhea, lactic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis↑ (↑HCO₃)Vomiting, NG suction, antacids, diuretics
⭐ Steps: 1) pH acid or alkaline? 2) which value matches the pH direction? (CO₂=resp, HCO₃=metabolic) 3) is the other value compensating?
IV Fluid Therapy + I&O / Rate Math Procedure
  • Isotonic (NS 0.9%, LR): stays in vessels → fluid resuscitation, blood loss (LR not with blood; NS is)
  • Hypotonic (0.45% NS): shifts INTO cells → cellular dehydration/hypernatremia (watch cerebral edema)
  • Hypertonic (3% NS, D10): pulls fluid OUT of cells → severe hyponatremia, cerebral edema; ICU, slow, monitor closely

The two calculations they test

  • IV rate (mL/hr) = total volume ÷ hours. Drip (gtt/min) = (volume × drop factor) ÷ minutes.
  • I&O: count all fluids in (PO, IV, tube) and out (urine, emesis, drains, liquid stool). 1 oz = 30 mL; goal urine ≥ 30 mL/hr.
⭐ Full worked examples are in the ✅ Practice Qs tab (dosage section).

Module 3 · Perioperative, Pain & Integument Exam 1

Perioperative Nursing ★ High-yield
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Pre-op

  • Informed consent: provider explains risks/benefits; nurse witnesses the signature & confirms understanding. Must be signed BEFORE sedation.
  • NPO (usually after midnight/8 hr), hold/adjust meds (anticoagulants, insulin, some herbals), baseline vitals/labs, remove jewelry/dentures, teach coughing/IS/leg exercises, mark site, verify allergies

Intra-op

  • Time-out (right patient/site/procedure), sterile field, positioning injury & skin protection, counts (sponges/instruments)

Post-op priorities (PACU → floor)

  • Airway → breathing → circulation first. Then LOC, pain, surgical site/drains, N/V
  • Prevent complications: IS + early ambulation (atelectasis/pneumonia, VTE), splint incision, monitor for hemorrhage (↑HR early), infection, paralytic ileus (bowel sounds/flatus)
  • Dehiscence/evisceration: cover with sterile saline-soaked gauze, low-Fowler with knees bent, NPO, stay calm, call surgeon
Malignant Hyperthermia & Anesthesia Emergency
  • Rare genetic reaction to inhaled anesthetics + succinylcholine → uncontrolled muscle hypermetabolism
  • Earliest sign = ↑ end-tidal CO₂; earliest reliable clinical = masseter (jaw) rigidity, tachycardia. Hyperthermia is a LATE sign.
  • Antidote = dantrolene; stop the agent, 100% O₂, cool the client, treat hyperkalemia/arrhythmias
  • Anesthesia types: general (airway priority), regional/spinal (watch hypotension, high block → resp compromise), local, moderate sedation
Obesity & Bariatric Surgery
  • Qualify: BMI ≥40, or ≥35 with comorbidities, after failed conservative attempts
  • Post-op: small sips → tiny frequent meals, protein first, no gulping, no straws/carbonation; risk of anastomotic leak (tachycardia, fever, ↑ pain → report), VTE, dumping syndrome
  • Lifelong vitamin/mineral supplementation (B12, iron, Ca, D); airway/OSA precautions; bariatric-appropriate equipment + dignity
Pain Management ★ High-yield
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  • Pain is what the client says it is — self-report is the gold standard. Use FLACC (nonverbal/kids), Wong-Baker faces, 0–10 numeric; PAINAD for dementia
  • WHO ladder: non-opioids (acetaminophen — watch 4 g/day max, NSAIDs — GI/renal/bleeding) → weak → strong opioids; multimodal is best
  • Opioids: monitor sedation + RR FIRST (respiratory depression is the danger); naloxone reverses; prevent constipation proactively (stimulant laxative, not just fiber)
  • Non-pharm: heat/cold, positioning, distraction, massage, relaxation, TENS — adjuncts, not replacements
Integument: Dermatitis, Zoster, Psoriasis, Skin Cancer
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  • Atopic dermatitis (eczema): dry itchy inflamed skin; moisturize, avoid triggers, topical steroids, don't scratch
  • Herpes zoster (shingles): reactivated varicella along a dermatome (unilateral, doesn't cross midline), painful vesicles. Airborne + contact precautions if disseminated/immunocompromised; antivirals within 72 hr; risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Contagious to non-immune until crusted.
  • Psoriasis: silvery scaly plaques (autoimmune, ↑ cell turnover); topical steroids, vitamin D analogs, phototherapy, biologics; not contagious
  • Skin cancers — ABCDE for melanoma: Asymmetry, Border irregular, Color varied, Diameter >6 mm, Evolving. AK = precancerous; BCC = most common, rarely metastasizes; SCC can metastasize; melanoma = deadliest. Teach sun protection + monthly skin checks
  • Skin grafts/flaps: monitor color/temp/cap refill of graft, immobilize, prevent pressure/shear on site

Modules 4–6 · Respiratory Exam 2

🎬 Chest Tubes — NCLEX Simplified video
Chest tube drainage system, water-seal, bubbling alerts & nursing priorities.
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Respiratory Diagnostics Procedure
  • ABGs (oxygenation + acid-base), PFTs (FVC/FEV1 — obstructive vs restrictive), CXR, chest CT/MRI, sputum culture (early AM, before antibiotics), pulse ox
  • Bronchoscopy/thoracoscopy: NPO before; after → check gag reflex before PO, watch for bleeding/laryngospasm (like EGD airway rules)
  • Thoracentesis: upright leaning on table, hold still; after → watch for pneumothorax (↓/absent breath sounds, ↑RR, sudden dyspnea)
Upper Respiratory: Rhinitis, Sinusitis, Pharyngitis, OSA, Epistaxis
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  • Rhinitis/sinusitis/pharyngitis: mostly viral (supportive care); teach hand hygiene, hydration; antibiotics only if bacterial (strep throat)
  • OSA: repeated apnea in sleep → daytime somnolence, loud snoring, morning headache, HTN. Tx = CPAP (adherence teaching is key), weight loss, avoid alcohol/sedatives, side-sleeping
  • Epistaxis: sit up + lean FORWARD, pinch soft nose 10–15 min, ice; don't tilt head back (aspiration/swallowed blood)
  • Laryngeal cancer: hoarseness >2 wk = red flag; smoking/alcohol; may need laryngectomy → permanent stoma, communication plan
Tracheostomy & O₂ Delivery Procedure
  • O₂ systems (low→high): nasal cannula (1–6 L, 24–44%) → simple mask → Venturi (most precise %) → non-rebreather (60–100%, emergencies)
  • Trach suctioning: hyperoxygenate first, sterile technique, insert WITHOUT suction, apply suction on withdrawal, ≤10–15 sec, ≤3 passes; watch SpO₂/HR
  • Keep obturator + spare trach + O₂ at bedside; if tube dislodges <7 days post-op = emergency (tract not formed) → call for help, ventilate
Pneumonia, Atelectasis, TB
  • Pneumonia: fever, productive cough, crackles, ↑WBC, dyspnea, ↓SpO₂. Tx: antibiotics (bacterial), O₂, hydration, IS, position good lung down for oxygenation... affected lung up; prevention = IS, ambulation, vaccines
  • Atelectasis: collapsed alveoli (common post-op) → ↓breath sounds; prevent/treat with IS, deep breathing, ambulation, coughing
  • TB: airborne precautions, negative-pressure room, N95; positive s/s = night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, chronic cough; dx = sputum AFB × 3 (confirms), Mantoux/IGRA screens; RIPE meds for 6–9 months — teach adherence (rifampin turns secretions orange), report vision changes (ethambutol), no alcohol (isoniazid hepatotoxicity)
Chest Tubes & Drainage Systems Procedure ★ High-yield
  • Purpose: remove air (pneumothorax — apical tube) or fluid/blood (hemothorax/effusion — basal tube) to re-expand the lung
  • Water-seal chamber: tidaling (rises/falls with breathing) = normal; continuous bubbling = air leak (check connections/insertion site first)
  • Suction chamber: gentle continuous bubbling is expected there
  • Keep drainage system below chest level, upright; do NOT routinely clamp or strip; keep sterile occlusive dressing
  • If tube dislodges from CHEST: cover with sterile gauze taped on 3 sides (flutter valve). If disconnects from SYSTEM: put the end in sterile water. Report sudden ↑ bright red drainage (>100 mL/hr).
ARDS, Pneumothorax, Pulmonary Edema, Mechanical Ventilation Emergency
  • Pneumothorax: sudden pleuritic pain, dyspnea, ↓/absent breath sounds one side; tension pneumo = tracheal deviation AWAY, hypotension, distended neck veins → needle decompression EMERGENCY
  • Flail chest: paradoxical chest movement after multiple rib fractures → support ventilation
  • ARDS: refractory hypoxemia (doesn't improve with O₂), bilateral infiltrates, ↓compliance; needs mechanical vent + PEEP, low tidal volume, prone positioning
  • Pulmonary edema: pink frothy sputum, severe dyspnea, crackles → high Fowler, O₂, diuretics, morphine, treat cause (often left HF)
  • Ventilator alarms: HIGH pressure = obstruction (secretions/kink/biting/coughing); LOW pressure = disconnection/leak
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning Emergency ⭐ High-yield
🚨 The pulse oximeter lies. SpO₂ can read 100% while the client is severely hypoxic — a standard oximeter cannot tell carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin. Never titrate oxygen by the saturation here. Diagnosis needs a carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level by CO-oximetry on a blood gas; a venous sample is fine.
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Why it does this

  • CO binds hemoglobin with 200–250× the affinity of oxygen, so it takes the seats oxygen needs.
  • It also shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve LEFT — the little oxygen still bound is not released to the tissues.
  • It poisons cytochrome c oxidase in mitochondria, so cells cannot use oxygen even when it arrives. This is why symptoms outlast the blood level.
  • Heart and brain suffer first — they have the least reserve.

Recognising it

  • Looks like flu, but no fever. Headache is the most common symptom.
  • Everyone in the house is sick at once, pets included, and everyone improves after leaving the building.
  • Winter, generators, a car running in a garage, a faulty furnace, using an oven to heat a room.
  • “Cherry red” skin is the textbook sign but is late and unreliable — mostly a postmortem finding. Pallor and cyanosis are far more common. Do not wait for it.
  • COHb over ~3–4% in a nonsmoker, or over ~9–10% in a smoker, supports the diagnosis.

What you do — in order

  • 1. Get them out of the source and into fresh air. Nothing else works until this happens.
  • 2. 100% oxygen by non-rebreather at 15 L/min. Intubate and ventilate on 100% FiO₂ if obtunded or unstable.
  • 3. Continuous cardiac monitoring, ECG and troponin — myocardial injury is common. Check lactate and CK.
  • 4. Keep oxygen going until symptom-free and COHb is near normal, usually about 4–6 hours — judged by symptoms and serial COHb, not by SpO₂.
  • 5. Hyperbaric oxygen for severe poisoning: loss of consciousness, neuro deficit or altered mental status, cardiac ischemia, severe metabolic acidosis, COHb above ~25%, or pregnancy at a lower threshold. Best within the first 6 hours.
Half-life of carboxyhemoglobinRoughly
Room air4–5 hours
100% oxygen, non-rebreather60–90 minutes
Hyperbaric oxygen20–30 minutes
⭐ The level does not match how sick they look. Treat the client, not the number — and a low COHb after transport does not rule it out, because it has been falling since they left the source.
🚨 Pregnancy. Fetal hemoglobin holds CO more tightly than the mother's, so the fetus is more poisoned and clears more slowly. Mom can look only mildly symptomatic while the fetus is in trouble — lower threshold for hyperbaric oxygen, longer oxygen therapy, and a pregnancy test for any woman of childbearing age.
🚨 House fire? Think cyanide too. A smoke-inhalation victim with a profound lactic acidosis may have cyanide toxicity alongside the CO. The antidote is hydroxocobalamin — it turns skin and urine red, and it interferes with co-oximetry (falsely low COHb reading).

Delayed neurologic sequelae

  • Appears days to weeks after apparent recovery, typically 2–4 weeks, after a lucid interval.
  • Memory loss, cognitive and personality change, gait disturbance, psychosis.
  • Up to 40% after severe poisoning. These clients need neuropsychiatric follow-up — tell them to expect it.

Client teaching

  • CO detectors on every level and near sleeping areas; test them and change the batteries.
  • Never run a generator, grill, or vehicle in a garage or enclosed space — not even with the door open.
  • Have the furnace and chimney inspected every year. Never heat the house with the oven.
  • CO is colorless, odorless and tasteless. You cannot smell it. That is the whole problem.
  • Leave the building and call 911; do not go back in until the fire department clears it.
  • Poison Control: 1-800-222-1222.
Pulmonary Embolism 🚨 Emergency ⭐ High-yield
📷 Related graphics
PE – Pulmonary EmbolismDrive ↗ 🔍⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
🚨 The word that gives it away is SUDDEN. Pneumonia builds over days. COPD builds over years. PE arrives in a minute. A post-op or immobile client who goes from fine to abruptly short of breath, anxious and tachypneic is a PE until proven otherwise — even with a normal SpO₂, a normal heart rate, a normal temperature, and a chest x-ray that shows nothing useful. Roughly a third of confirmed PEs have a completely normal PaO₂.
What it actually is. A clot — almost always broken off from a DVT in the leg or pelvis — travels up the vena cava, through the right heart, and lodges in a pulmonary artery. Past that point blood cannot pick up oxygen: the alveoli are ventilated but not perfused. That is the V/Q mismatch, and it explains every sign that follows.

🧮 Why it happens — Virchow's triad

Leg of the triadWho that is on your unit
Venous stasisImmobility, bed rest, long surgery, long flight, casts, obesity, heart failure
Vessel injurySurgery (especially orthopedic hip and knee), trauma, fractures, central lines, IV drug use
HypercoagulabilityCancer, pregnancy and postpartum, estrogen contraceptives — worse with smoking, dehydration, sepsis, inherited clotting disorders, COVID

👀 What you would see

  • Sudden dyspnea — the most common symptom, about 73%.
  • Tachypnea — the most common sign, about 54%.
  • Tachycardia is classic but only present in about a quarter. A normal heart rate does not argue against PE. This is where students lose the question.
  • Pleuritic chest pain — sharp, stabbing, worse on inspiration.
  • Anxiety and a sense of impending doom. Take it seriously; it is a real finding, not nerves.
  • Falling SpO₂, cough, crackles, sometimes hemoptysis, low-grade fever, a pleural friction rub.
  • Massive PE: hypotension, JVD, syncope, cyanosis, right-sided heart strain → obstructive shock and cardiac arrest. This is the one that kills within the hour.
  • Check the legs — unilateral calf swelling, warmth, redness and pain point to the source DVT. But most PEs arrive with no leg symptoms at all, so normal legs rule nothing out.
🚨 Do not use Homans' sign. Sensitivity 10–54%, specificity 39–89% — a positive does not mean DVT and a negative rules nothing out. Do not massage or milk a suspected DVT calf. Honest footnote: the "you will dislodge the clot" mechanism has never actually been demonstrated — it is a nursing-textbook convention, not proven physiology. Answer it that way on the exam anyway, because there is no upside to squeezing. Inspect and measure, do not manipulate.

🧪 Diagnostics

TestWhat it tells you
CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)The gold standard — this is the confirming test. Uses IV contrast. The history that matters is a previous reaction to iodinated contrastshellfish allergy is NOT a risk factor, that one is a myth with no cross-reactivity behind it. Check creatinine/eGFR and BUN and hydrate. Metformin is held only for eGFR under 30, AKI, or arterial contrast — not routinely
D-dimerVery sensitive, not specific. A normal D-dimer in a low- or intermediate-risk ("PE unlikely") client excludes PE without imaging. In a high-probability client a normal D-dimer does not rule it out — go straight to CT. A high one proves nothing; surgery, trauma, pregnancy, cancer, age and infection all raise it
V/Q scanThe alternative when contrast is a problem — renal impairment, contrast allergy, pregnancy
ABGClassic early picture: respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia — low PaO₂ and low PaCO₂, because they are blowing off CO₂ from tachypnea. Late, as they tire, it flips to respiratory acidosis. But about a third of PE clients have a normal PaO₂ — a normal ABG or SpO₂ never rules PE out
ECGSinus tachycardia is the most common finding. The classic S1Q3T3 pattern is famous but uncommon — know the name, do not wait for it
Chest x-rayAbnormal in most PEs, but never diagnostic — only about 12% are truly normal. The usual findings are nonspecific: atelectasis, a small effusion, a raised hemidiaphragm. Its job is to rule out the other causes of sudden dyspnea — pneumothorax, pneumonia, pulmonary edema — not to find the PE
Echocardiogram, troponin, BNPRight ventricular strain — these are what sort a stable PE from a life-threatening one
Wells scorePre-test probability; it decides whether you go to D-dimer or straight to CT
🚨 Priority action question? This is the order.
1. Stay with the client. Do not leave to go find someone — call out or use the call light.
2. Oxygen and position together — high-flow O₂, non-rebreather if needed, sitting upright in high Fowler's. If they are hypotensive, keep them flatter — upright strips preload from the failing right ventricle.
3. Call the provider / rapid response.
4. IV access, continuous cardiac and pulse-ox monitoring, vitals.
5. Anticoagulation as ordered — often started on strong suspicion, before the CT confirms it.
Airway and Breathing first. Positioning and oxygen are both “B” and go together — but if a question forces you to pick one, pick the oxygenation answer.
🚨 Massive PE: do not chase the blood pressure with fluid. Aggressive boluses overload a right ventricle that is already failing against the clot and make the hypotension worse. Small cautious volume at most, then vasopressors. This is counterintuitive, which is exactly why it gets tested.

💊 Anticoagulation — the numbers they ask for

DrugMonitorAntidote
Heparin (unfractionated, IV drip)aPTT 1.5–2.5× control — the number your texts and NCLEX use; many real labs now run anti-Xa 0.3–0.7 instead. Baseline and serial platelets for HIT: a fall of more than 50% from baseline or below 150,000, classically days 5–10. HIT causes CLOTTING, not bleeding. Stop all heparin including line flushes AND start a non-heparin anticoagulant — argatroban, bivalirudin or fondaparinux. Do not transfuse platelets. Protamine does NOT treat HIT. Protamine sulfate — for bleeding or overdose only
Enoxaparin (Lovenox, LMWH)No routine aPTT; dose-adjust for CrCl under 30. Deep subcut in the abdomen, do not expel the air bubble, do not aspirate, do not rub. Boxed warning — spinal/epidural hematoma with neuraxial anesthesia or lumbar puncture: report new back pain, leg weakness or numbness, or bowel and bladder changes Protamine — partial only, about 60% of anti-Xa activity
WarfarinINR 2–3. Takes days to work, so heparin overlaps for a minimum of 5 days AND until the INR is 2 or above for 24 hours Vitamin K (phytonadione) — slow; major bleeding needs 4-factor PCC
DOACs — apixaban, rivaroxabanNow first-line for most VTE, preferred over warfarin. No routine monitoring, fewer interactions; still check renal function. Contraindicated in pregnancyAndexanet alfa
DabigatranNo routine monitoringIdarucizumab
Heparin vs warfarin, the two-second version. Heparin → aPTTProtamine. Warfarin → INR → Vitamin K. Heparin works in minutes, warfarin takes days — which is exactly why they overlap for at least 5 days. Both are high-alert medications: independent double-check before you hang them.

🏥 Beyond anticoagulation

  • Thrombolytics (alteplase) — only for massive PE with hemodynamic instability. They dissolve the clot that is already there. Absolute contraindications: active internal bleeding or a bleeding disorder; any prior intracranial hemorrhage; ischemic stroke within 3 months; known intracranial AVM or malignant tumour; intracranial or spinal surgery or serious head trauma within 3 months; suspected aortic dissection; severe uncontrolled hypertension.
  • Surgical or catheter embolectomy when thrombolytics fail or are contraindicated.
  • IVC filter when anticoagulation cannot be used or keeps failing — it catches clots travelling up from the legs. It does not treat the clot already in the lung.

🛡 Prevention — the highest-yield nursing content in this card

  • Early and frequent ambulation. This is the answer far more often than any drug.
  • Sequential compression devices and graduated stockings; on whenever they are in bed.
  • Prophylactic subcut heparin or enoxaparin for at-risk clients.
  • Ankle pumps, leg exercises, hydration, no pillows under the knees, no leg crossing.
  • Highest-risk groups: hip and knee replacement, major abdominal or pelvic surgery, cancer, trauma.

🏷 Bleeding precautions and teaching

  • Electric razor, soft toothbrush, no hard flossing, no contact sports, fall precautions.
  • Report bleeding gums, nosebleeds, bruising, blood in urine or stool, black tarry stools, coffee-ground emesis, and any new or worsening headache — that last one may be an intracranial bleed.
  • No NSAIDs, no aspirin unless prescribed. Check every over-the-counter product and supplement.
  • Warfarin and vitamin K: the rule is consistency, not avoidance. She does not have to give up spinach — she has to eat about the same amount of it every week.
  • Medical alert bracelet, keep every INR appointment, tell every dentist and provider.
  • Warfarin and the DOACs are contraindicated in pregnancy. Warfarin is teratogenic; heparin and LMWH are the pregnancy-safe options because they do not cross the placenta.

🔄 The other three embolisms — each has a different first action

TypeWho and whenThe clueFirst action
Fat embolismLong bone or pelvic fracture, usually 24–72 hours after the injury; often a young adultPetechiae over the chest, axillae, neck and conjunctivae, plus confusion out of proportion to everything else. Present in only about a third to half of cases and often late — do not wait for itOxygen and supportive care — that is the whole treatment. Early surgical fixation of the fracture is what prevents it; splint and immobilise until then. Anticoagulation is not the treatment
Air embolismCentral line insertion, removal or disconnection; also surgery and dialysisSudden dyspnea and hypotension with the classic churning mill-wheel murmur — know the name, but it is late and insensitive; most air emboli never produce it Clamp the line and stop the infusion, then left side-lying with the head down (Trendelenburg — Durant's maneuver) to trap the air in the right atrium, and give 100% oxygen. This applies to venous air embolism
Amniotic fluid embolismLabour, delivery, or immediately postpartum Abrupt collapse: respiratory distress, cardiovascular collapse, then DIC Call for help, CPR-level support, oxygen, deliver the fetus, treat the DIC
Two-second recall. Sudden dyspnea + pleuritic chest pain + tachypnea + anxiety in an immobile or post-op client · ventilated but not perfused · oxygen and upright, then call · CT angiography confirms, D-dimer only rules out · heparin/aPTT/protamine, warfarin/INR 2–3/vitamin K · normal SpO₂, normal heart rate and a clean-looking x-ray rule out nothing · the best treatment is walking them before it ever happens.
Cystic Fibrosis ⭐ High-yield
One broken chloride channel explains the entire disease. CFTR cannot move chloride out of the cell, so sodium and water do not follow, so every exocrine secretion in the body is thick and sticky instead of thin and runny. Lungs, pancreas, liver, gut, sweat glands, reproductive tract — same defect, different organ.

Pathophysiology

  • Autosomal recessive, CFTR gene on chromosome 7. Most common mutation is F508del. Two carrier parents = 25% chance each pregnancy.
  • Chloride is stuck inside the cell → water is not pulled into the secretion → mucus is thick.
  • Sweat glands work backwards: chloride cannot be reabsorbed out of sweat, so the sweat comes out salty. That is the whole basis of the sweat test.
  • Lungs: thick mucus plugs airways → trapped bacteria → chronic infection → inflammation → bronchiectasis → respiratory failure. This is what they die of.
  • Pancreas: ducts plug → enzymes never reach the duodenum → fat and protein are not absorbed. Over time the gland fibroses and fills with fat, wrecking the islets → insulin insufficiency → CF-related diabetes (CFRD). It is not type 1 (not autoimmune) and not type 2. Screen annually with a 2-hour OGTT starting at age 10 — A1C is not used to screen. Treat with insulin, not oral agents, and do not put them on a diabetic or low-calorie diet — the CF high-calorie, high-fat diet still wins.
Bronchiectasis, since it gets asked as its own question. Permanent, irreversible dilation and scarring of the bronchi caused by the repeating infection → inflammation → damage cycle. CF is the leading cause of bronchiectasis in children and young adults. Hallmark: chronic cough producing large volumes of purulent sputum, worst in the morning, plus hemoptysis and clubbing. It does not reverse — which is exactly why daily airway clearance is non-negotiable even on a good day.

What you would see

  • Salty-tasting skin — the parent says the baby tastes salty when kissed. Classic.
  • Chronic productive cough, thick purulent sputum, recurrent pneumonia, wheezes and crackles.
  • Steatorrhea — bulky, greasy, foul-smelling, floating stools.
  • Failure to thrive despite a big appetite. They eat and eat and stay small.
  • Meconium ileus in the newborn — occurs in about 15–20% and is nearly diagnostic of CF, but most babies are now found by newborn screening rather than by symptoms. Later, distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) and rectal prolapse.
  • Barrel chest, clubbing, nasal polyps, chronic sinusitis.
  • 97–98% of men are infertile — congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens. Infertile is not sterile: sperm production is normal in about 90%, so they can father children with surgical sperm retrieval and IVF. Women have reduced fertility from thick cervical mucus but can conceive — they still need contraception counselling.

Diagnostics

TestWhat it shows
Sweat chloride — the gold standard60 mmol/L or higher = diagnostic · 30–59 intermediate, repeat and do genetic testing · 29 or below normal. Same values at every age. Not valid in the first 48 hours of life; done at 10 days or older with an adequate sweat volume.
Newborn screeningImmunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT), then sweat test to confirm
CFTR genetic testingConfirms, and decides which modulator drug they can have
Stool elastase / 72-hour fecal fatLow elastase, high fecal fat = pancreatic insufficiency
Pulmonary function testsObstructive pattern; FEV₁ is how progression is tracked
Sputum cultureStaph aureus early, then Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Burkholderia cepacia — the one that spreads between clients
🚨 Two different chlorides — do not mix them up. SWEAT chloride is HIGH (60 or above = diagnostic). SERUM chloride is LOW, because they are dumping salt out through the skin. Heat, fever, exercise, vomiting → hypochloremia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis (“pseudo-Bartter syndrome”), which shows up in an infant as lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting and dehydration. That is why salt is supplemented and never restricted.
🚨 The order of the routine is the exam question. Open → thin → clear → treat:
1. Bronchodilator — open the airway first. It also blunts the bronchospasm hypertonic saline causes.
2. Hypertonic saline 7% and/or dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) — now thin the mucus.
3. Airway clearance — chest physiotherapy, the vest, PEP device, huff cough. Now get it out.
4. Inhaled antibiotic — so it reaches a clear airway instead of sitting on mucus.
5. Inhaled corticosteroid if ordered — dead last, into the clearest lung.
Answer with that order. The real-world nuance, if it ever comes up: the Cochrane review found dornase alfa works about as well given after airway clearance as before, so its timing is flexible in practice. And never mix inhaled tobramycin with dornase alfa in the same nebulizer.

Medical management

  • Dornase alfa breaks down the DNA released by dead white cells, which is what makes CF mucus so thick. Hypertonic saline 7% pulls water into the airway.
  • Inhaled tobramycin (300 mg BID, 28 days on / 28 days off) or aztreonam for chronic Pseudomonas. Monitor for ototoxicity (tinnitus, hearing loss), nephrotoxicity and bronchospasm.
  • CFTR modulators — ivacaftor, tezacaftor/ivacaftor, elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor (Trikafta). These fix the protein itself rather than the symptoms, and they are chosen by mutation. Boxed warning: drug-induced liver injury. LFTs at baseline, monthly for 6 months, then every 3 months for a year, then annually — hold and report jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting. Also eye exams in children (cataracts), watch for new depression or suicidal ideation, give with fat-containing food, and avoid grapefruit.
  • Pancreatic enzymes (pancrelipase) and fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K.
  • No cough suppressants. The productive cough is how they clear the mucus — suppressing it is a classic wrong answer.
  • Lung transplant for end-stage disease.
Nutrition question? The answer is the enzymes. Pancrelipase with or immediately before every meal AND every snack — not after, not “sometime around” the meal. If a meal runs longer than 30 minutes, split the dose: half at the start, half partway through. No enzymes means no absorption, no matter how many calories go in.

Nursing management

  • Airway clearance before meals, or at least 1 hour after — doing it on a full stomach makes them vomit.
  • Enzyme capsules may be opened onto a small amount of acidic soft food. The label rule is pH 4.5 or less — applesauce, bananas, pears. Do not crush or chew the beads; the coating protects the enzyme from stomach acid, and chewed beads irritate the mouth. Do not mix into milk, formula or breast milk — the pH is too high and it strips the coating. Give it immediately, then follow with fluid so none is left in the mouth.
  • High-calorie, high-protein, high-fat diet — roughly 110–200% of normal calories. Do not put them on a low-fat diet; fat is fine once enzymes are on board.
  • Extra salt, never restricted — they lose it in sweat. More in heat, fever and exercise.
  • Watch for hemoptysis and pneumothorax — both are real risks in advanced disease.
  • DIOS is not plain constipation. Right lower quadrant mass with obstruction → osmotic laxatives, polyethylene glycol or Gastrografin. Surgery is not the first move.
  • ABPA (allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis): new wheezing, a drop in FEV₁ and a rising IgE that does not respond to antibiotics. Treated with corticosteroids plus an antifungal.
  • Also chronic: osteopenia and osteoporosis (vitamin D malabsorption plus steroids) and CF liver disease (focal biliary cirrhosis, portal hypertension).
  • Influenza, pneumococcal, COVID-19 and RSV immunization per schedule. Live vaccines are fine — CF itself does not make them immunosuppressed — unless they have had a transplant.
  • Exercise is treatment, not just recreation — it helps clear secretions.
🚨 Never put two clients with CF together — regardless of what their cultures grow. At least 6 feet apart in every setting, no shared rooms, no shared equipment, and only one person with CF at any group event. In the hospital: contact precautions, gown and gloves, for every client with CF, culture-positive or not, and the client wears a surgical mask whenever out of the room. Burkholderia cepacia is the organism that created these rules — it passes between people with CF, can be rapidly fatal, and is a transplant contraindication at many centres — but the 6-foot rule applies to everyone with CF. Household members are exempt.

Teaching the family

  • It is lifelong and progressive, but the numbers have changed enormously. Per the CF Foundation Patient Registry, a child born today has a median predicted survival in the mid-60s, and most people with CF in the US are now adults. Adherence genuinely moves that number.
  • Airway clearance every day, even when they feel well. It is not a rescue treatment.
  • Report a change in sputum colour, volume or thickness, new fever, weight loss, or a drop in exercise tolerance — those are the early signs of an exacerbation.
  • Genetic counselling for the parents and for the client of childbearing age.
  • Salty skin is expected; extra salt in hot weather is a safety issue, not a preference.
Two-second recall. Thick secretions everywhere · salty sweat · sweat chloride high, serum chloride low · steatorrhea and failure to thrive · enzymes with every meal and snack · bronchodilator → thin → clear → antibiotic · keep every CF client 6 feet apart.
COPD, Asthma, Lung Cancer ★ High-yield
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  • COPD: chronic bronchitis + emphysema; barrel chest, prolonged expiration, ↑CO₂ retention. Low-flow O₂ titrated to SpO₂ 88–92%; pursed-lip & diaphragmatic breathing, tripod position, small frequent high-cal meals, smoking cessation #1, vaccines
  • Asthma: reversible bronchospasm; wheeze, chest tightness, cough. SABA (albuterol) = rescue FIRST, then inhaled corticosteroid = controller (rinse mouth after — thrush). Silent chest / no wheezing in severe attack = ominous (no air moving). Peak flow monitoring: green/yellow/red zones
  • Lung cancer: chronic cough, hemoptysis, weight loss; smoking = #1 risk; often late dx; management by stage (surgery/chemo/radiation) + symptom control
  • Pulmonary embolism: sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, ↓SpO₂, anxiety. Full PE card is just above ↑

Modules 7–8 · Cardiovascular Exam 3

More Cardiovascular graphics 2 graphics
Allen Test – Collateral Circulation⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
Anatomy & Physiology Cardiac SystemDrive ↗ 🔍⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
CAD, Angina & Acute Coronary Syndrome / MI ★ High-yield
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1 MI, Angina, CAD - cath labDrive ↗ 🔍⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
  • Stable angina: predictable, with exertion, relieved by rest + nitro. Unstable angina/MI: at rest, NOT relieved → emergency
  • MI signs: crushing substernal pain radiating to jaw/left arm, diaphoresis, N/V, dyspnea, doom; women/elderly/diabetics = atypical (fatigue, indigestion, SOB)
  • Immediate care (MONA-ish, not strict order): O₂ if <90%, aspirin (chew), nitroglycerin (hold if SBP<90 or PDE-5 inhibitor use), morphine; get 12-lead + troponin (most specific marker, rises 3–4 hr)
  • Nitro teaching: 1 tab q5min ×3, call 911 if no relief after first dose; burning/headache expected; sit down (hypotension)
  • Reperfusion: PCI (goal door-to-balloon <90 min) or thrombolytics; post-cath watch site bleeding, keep leg straight, pulses distal
Dysrhythmias, ECG, Defibrillation vs Cardioversion ★ High-yield

⚡ ECG & Arrhythmia Quick Guide — read it, recognize it, treat it

RhythmWhat to recognizeWhat to do / teaching
ECG basicsP = atrial depolarization · QRS = ventricular depolarization · T = repolarizationAssess regularity + rate + P:QRS relationship first — foundation for every rhythm.
A-fibIrregularly irregular, no clear P waves, fibrillatory baselineRate control (beta-blocker / CCB / digoxin) + anticoagulation (clot & stroke risk).
V-tach (with pulse)Wide, regular “sawtooth” complexes, pulse presentAntiarrhythmics ± synchronized cardioversion. Pulseless V-tach or V-fib → defibrillate (unsynchronized) + CPR.
Asystole / PEAFlat line (asystole) or organized rhythm with no pulse (PEA)NOT shockableCPR + epinephrine.
Bradycardia (symptomatic)Slow rate with symptoms (dizziness, hypotension, syncope)Atropine → pacing. Pacemaker/AICD teaching: check pulse, avoid strong magnets/MRI, don’t raise arm above shoulder initially, report dizziness.
⚡ SHOCKABLE
V-fib & pulseless V-tach
→ Defibrillate (unsynchronized) + CPR
⛔ NOT SHOCKABLE
Asystole & PEA
→ CPR + epinephrine
★ Remember: assess the rhythm → check for a pulse → treat the patient.
📷 Related graphics
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  • ECG basics: P wave = atrial depolarization, QRS = ventricular depolarization, T = repolarization; regularity + rate + P:QRS
  • A-fib: irregularly irregular, no clear P waves → clot/stroke risk → anticoagulation; rate control (beta-blocker/CCB/digoxin)
  • V-tach WITH pulse: antiarrhythmics ± synchronized cardioversion. V-tach without pulse / V-fib: DEFIBRILLATE (unsynchronized) + CPR
  • Asystole/PEA: NOT shockable → CPR + epinephrine
  • Bradycardia (symptomatic): atropine → pacing. Pacemaker/AICD teaching: check pulse, avoid strong magnets/MRI, no arm raised above shoulder initially, report dizziness
🚨 Shockable = V-fib & pulseless V-tach. NOT shockable = asystole & PEA (CPR + epi).
Hypertension ★ High-yield
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  • "Silent killer"; ≥130/80 (stage 1). Damages heart, brain, kidneys, eyes. Lifestyle first: DASH diet, ↓Na⁺, weight loss, exercise, limit alcohol, no smoking
  • Drug classes (see your antihypertensive chart): ACE inhibitors (-pril: dry cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema), ARBs (-sartan), beta-blockers (-olol: check HR/BP first, mask hypoglycemia), CCBs (-dipine), diuretics (give AM, monitor K⁺)
  • Teaching: take even when feeling fine, don't stop abruptly (rebound), rise slowly (orthostatic), home BP log
Heart Failure & Pulmonary Edema ★ High-yield
Left HFRight HF
Backs up into LUNGS: dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles, pink frothy sputum, fatigueBacks up into BODY: JVD, peripheral edema, weight gain, hepatomegaly, ascites
  • Management: daily weight (report 2–3 lb/day or 5 lb/week gain), Na⁺/fluid restriction, diuretics, ACE/ARB, beta-blocker, high Fowler + O₂ for dyspnea
  • Digoxin: ↑contractility, ↓HR. Hold if apical HR <60; toxicity = N/V, anorexia, visual halos/yellow-green, confusion; hypokalemia ↑ toxicity risk; therapeutic 0.5–2
Valve Disorders, Cardiomyopathy, Infectious Cardiac
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Valve Disorder 2Drive ↗ 🔍⚠️ picture removed — it was another publisher's
  • Valve disorders (stenosis/regurgitation): murmurs, fatigue, HF symptoms; may need valve replacement (mechanical = lifelong anticoagulation)
  • Pericarditis: sharp pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting/leaning forward, friction rub; watch for cardiac tamponade (Beck triad: ↓BP, muffled heart sounds, JVD → emergency pericardiocentesis)
  • Endocarditis: fever, new murmur, Janeway lesions/Osler nodes, splinter hemorrhages; needs long-term IV antibiotics, prophylaxis before dental work
  • Myocarditis/cardiomyopathy: impaired pump → HF/arrhythmia; supportive, may progress to transplant
Peripheral Vascular: PAD vs PVD, DVT, Aneurysm, Raynaud ★ High-yield
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PAD (arterial)PVD (venous)
Problem↓ blood TO tissue↓ blood return FROM tissue
PainIntermittent claudication, pain with activity, rest pain worse at nightAching/heavy, better with elevation
SkinCool, pale, hairless, shiny; weak pulses; round "punched-out" painful ulcers on toes/feetWarm, brown discoloration, edema; irregular ulcers near ankle
PositionDangle legs (dependent) to ↑ arterial flowElevate legs to ↑ venous return
  • DVT: unilateral warmth, redness, swelling, pain; don't massage (embolus risk); anticoagulation, elevate, SCDs prevent. Watch for PE.
  • AAA: often silent; pulsatile abdominal mass, do NOT palpate deeply; rupture = sudden severe back/abd pain + hypotension = emergency
  • Raynaud: vasospasm → white→blue→red fingers with cold/stress; keep warm, avoid triggers/nicotine, CCBs

Module 9 · Renal & Urinary Exam 4

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UTI (Cystitis / Pyelonephritis) & CAUTI Prevention
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  • Cystitis: dysuria, frequency, urgency, cloudy/foul urine, suprapubic pain. Pyelonephritis: add flank pain (CVA tenderness), high fever, chills, N/V — more serious
  • Elderly: confusion may be the ONLY sign of a UTI
  • Teach: wipe front→back, void after intercourse, hydrate, cotton underwear, finish antibiotics; cranberry may help prevent
  • CAUTI prevention: only use catheter when necessary, remove ASAP, sterile insertion, keep bag below bladder, closed system, secure tubing, peri care
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) ★ High-yield
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  • Sudden ↓ kidney function. Causes: Pre-renal (↓perfusion — hypovolemia, HF), Intra-renal (ATN, nephrotoxins/contrast), Post-renal (obstruction — stones, BPH)
  • Oliguric phase = most dangerous: fluid overload, hyperkalemia (peaked T waves → arrest), metabolic acidosis, ↑BUN/creatinine → then diuretic phase (watch dehydration/hypokalemia)
  • Nursing: strict I&O + daily weight, monitor K⁺/electrolytes, restrict fluid/K⁺/Na⁺, avoid nephrotoxins, prep for dialysis if severe
Chronic Kidney Disease ★ High-yield
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  • Progressive irreversible ↓GFR; causes = diabetes + HTN (top two). Uremia → everything backs up
  • S/S: fluid overload, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, ↑phosphate / ↓calcium → bone disease, anemia (↓EPO), uremic frost/pruritus, nausea
  • Diet: restrict protein, sodium, potassium, phosphorus, fluid; phosphate binders WITH meals; EPO + iron for anemia; active vitamin D; no Mg antacids
Dialysis: Hemodialysis, AV Fistula, Peritoneal Procedure ★ High-yield
  • AV fistula/graft care: assess thrill (feel) + bruit (hear) each shift; NO BP, IV, or venipuncture in that arm; no tight sleeves/jewelry; report absent thrill (clotting)
  • Hemodialysis: weigh before & after (fluid removed); hold certain meds (antihypertensives) before; watch hypotension, disequilibrium syndrome, bleeding (heparin used)
  • Peritoneal dialysis: warm dialysate, sterile technique; cloudy outflow = peritonitis (the big complication); outflow should roughly equal/exceed inflow; retained fluid → assess for leak/constipation
Renal Calculi, Glomerulonephritis, Nephrotic, PKD, Bladder Cancer, Transplant
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  • Renal calculi: severe flank pain radiating to groin, hematuria; strain all urine, hydrate, pain control, ambulate; diet depends on stone type (limit oxalate/purine/Na⁺)
  • Glomerulonephritis: often post-strep; hematuria (tea-colored), proteinuria, edema, HTN; supportive + treat cause
  • Nephrotic syndrome: massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia; low-Na⁺, monitor for infection/clots
  • PKD: genetic; fluid-filled cysts → enlarged kidneys, flank pain, HTN, hematuria → eventual CKD
  • Bladder cancer: painless hematuria = classic; smoking risk; urinary diversion → ostomy/stoma care, mucus in urine normal with ileal conduit
  • Transplant: lifelong immunosuppression; watch rejection (fever, ↓UOP, ↑creatinine, tenderness over graft, HTN) and infection

Module 10 · Hepatobiliary Exam 4

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Cirrhosis, Portal HTN, Ascites, Varices ★ High-yield
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  • Irreversible liver scarring (alcohol, hepatitis, NAFLD). Loss of function → ↓clotting factors (bleeding), ↓albumin (edema/ascites), ↑bilirubin (jaundice), ↑ammonia (encephalopathy)
  • Portal HTN → ascites (daily weight + abdominal girth, low Na⁺, paracentesis — void first, monitor for hypovolemia after) and esophageal varices
  • Esophageal varices = emergency: massive hematemesis → airway + volume, octreotide, endoscopic banding, balloon tamponade; avoid straining/coughing/NSAIDs
  • Bleeding risk everywhere: soft toothbrush, electric razor, monitor coags, watch for occult bleeding
Hepatic Encephalopathy & Liver Failure ★ High-yield
  • Failing liver can't clear ammonia → neuro decline: confusion, personality change, asterixis (flapping tremor), ↑ammonia, → coma
  • Lactulose = key treatment: traps & excretes ammonia in stool — titrate to 2–3 soft stools/day (too many = dehydration); rifaximin adjunct
  • Protein historically restricted in acute severe cases — modern practice keeps adequate protein; follow orders; assess LOC frequently, safety
Viral Hepatitis & Liver Cancer
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  • Hep A & E: fecal-oral (contaminated food/water) — acute, usually self-limited; hand hygiene, sanitation
  • Hep B, C, D: blood/body fluids (sex, needles, perinatal) — can become chronic → cirrhosis/cancer. Hep B vaccine exists; Hep C = leading cause of transplant, now curable with antivirals
  • S/S: jaundice, dark urine, clay stools, fatigue, RUQ pain, ↑LFTs; standard precautions, avoid hepatotoxins (alcohol, acetaminophen)
  • Liver cancer: often on top of cirrhosis/hep; ↑AFP; poor prognosis; palliative + targeted therapies
Pancreatitis ★ High-yield
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  • Autodigestion of the pancreas. Causes: gallstones + alcohol (top two). Severe epigastric/LUQ pain radiating to back, worse lying flat/eating; N/V
  • Labs: ↑amylase & lipase (lipase more specific); Cullen sign (periumbilical bruising) / Grey Turner (flank bruising) = hemorrhagic (serious)
  • Management: NPO (rest the pancreas), IV fluids, pain control, NG suction if vomiting; monitor hypocalcemia (+Chvostek/Trousseau) and hyperglycemia; low-fat diet when resuming; no alcohol
Cholelithiasis, Cholecystitis, Cholecystectomy, ERCP Procedure
  • Risk = the 4 F's: Female, Forty, Fat, Fertile. RUQ pain after fatty meals radiating to right shoulder, N/V, ± jaundice if duct blocked; Murphy sign (pain arrests inspiration)
  • Dx: ultrasound (first-line); ERCP can diagnose + remove duct stones (post: NPO till gag returns, watch pancreatitis/perforation)
  • Lap cholecystectomy: most common; referred shoulder pain from CO₂ gas is normal → ambulate; low-fat diet initially; report fever, ↑pain, jaundice, bile-colored drainage

Module 11 · Upper GI Disorders Exam 5 ★ Deep dive

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EGD (Esophagogastroduodenoscopy) Procedure ★ High-yield

What / Why

  • Flexible scope visualizes esophagus → stomach → duodenum. Can biopsy (H. pylori, celiac, cancer), dilate strictures, band varices, stop bleeding, remove foreign bodies.
  • Indications: unexplained N/V, dysphagia, persistent heartburn, upper GI bleed (melena, hematemesis), unexplained anemia, early satiety/weight loss, food impaction.

Pre-procedure — priority: aspiration prevention

  • NPO 6–8 hr (prevents aspiration under sedation)
  • Verify informed consent, allergies, baseline vitals, IV access
  • Remove dentures/partials
  • Moderate sedation: midazolam, fentanyl, or propofol

Intra-procedure

  • Side-lying position → protects airway
  • Monitor RR, SpO₂, BP, HR; suction at bedside

Post-procedure — priority order

  • 1. Gag reflex FIRST — NPO until it returns (throat was anesthetized)
  • 2. Watch for complications: perforation (chest/abd pain, rigid abdomen, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, subcutaneous emphysema) and bleeding (hematemesis, melena, ↓BP, ↑HR)
  • 3. Sedation safety: side rails up, assist ambulation, no driving/legal decisions ×24 hr
⭐ Exam pearl: mild sore throat = expected. Severe chest pain + fever + crepitus in neck = perforation → notify provider STAT.
NG Tube Placement Procedure ★ High-yield

Insertion

  • Measure: nose → earlobe → xiphoid process (NEX)
  • High-Fowler, head slightly forward, sip water through straw while advancing (if allowed)
  • Coughing, cyanosis, inability to speak during insertion = in the airway → pull back

Verifying placement

  • X-ray = gold standard — required before FIRST use for feeding/meds
  • Ongoing: aspirate + check pH (gastric ≤5); measure external tube length vs baseline
  • Auscultating air ("whoosh test") is NOT reliable — never use alone

Nursing priorities

  • HOB ≥30° (30–45°) at all times during feeding — aspiration is the #1 risk
  • Flush 30 mL water before/after meds; give meds one at a time, crushed separately (never crush enteric-coated or extended-release)
  • Check residuals per policy; recheck placement each shift and before each feed/med
  • Skin/nare care; re-tape daily; suction settings: low intermittent for Salem sump (has blue air vent — keep above stomach level, never clamp or instill into it)
🚨 If the tube may be displaced (coughing fit, vomiting, external length changed) — STOP the feeding and verify before continuing.
Enteral Feeding (G-tube, J-tube) Procedure

Basics

  • For clients who can't swallow safely but have a functioning gut ("if the gut works, use it")
  • G-tube = stomach; J-tube = jejunum (bypasses stomach — continuous feeds only, smaller lumen, clogs easily; no residual checks)

Nursing management

  • HOB ≥30° during and 30–60 min after feeds
  • Flush with warm water q4h (continuous), before/after meds and intermittent feeds
  • Formula: room temperature (cold = cramping); hang time ≤ 4–8 hr per policy (bacterial growth); change bag/tubing q24h
  • Check gastric residual volume per policy (G-tube); rising residuals + distension + N/V = intolerance
  • Stoma site: clean, dry, assess for redness/drainage/skin breakdown; slight in-out play is normal for some tubes — report dislodgement

Complications

  • Diarrhea = most common (rate too fast, cold or hyperosmolar formula, bacterial contamination, sorbitol meds)
  • Aspiration, tube occlusion (flush! warm water first-line), hyperglycemia, dumping-type symptoms if bolus into jejunum
Dental Caries & Salivary Disorders
  • Caries: prevention = brushing/flossing, fluoride, limit sugars, regular dental care. Untreated → abscess, systemic infection.
  • Parotitis (inflamed parotid gland): classic in elderly, dehydrated, NPO, or post-op clients with poor oral hygiene — staph. Prevent with oral care + hydration. S/S: painful swelling ear/jaw area, fever.
  • Sialolithiasis (salivary stone): pain/swelling that worsens with eating. Tx: hydration, warm compresses, sour candy/sialagogues to stimulate flow, massage, possible removal.
Oropharyngeal Cancer

Risk factors

  • Tobacco (all forms) + alcohol (synergistic), HPV-16, sun exposure (lip), poor oral hygiene, male >50

Manifestations

  • Painless ulcer/sore that doesn't heal in 2+ weeks (most common early sign)
  • Leukoplakia (white patch, precancerous) and erythroplakia (red velvety patch — higher malignancy risk)
  • Later: dysphagia, ear pain, voice change, neck lump

Management

  • Biopsy = definitive dx. Surgery, radiation, chemo. Early detection = high cure rate → teach monthly self-exam of mouth for smokers/drinkers.
Neck Dissection Surgery Airway risk

Post-op priorities (in order)

  • #1 AIRWAY: semi-Fowler (↓edema, ↑expansion), suction ready, watch for stridor/restlessness; trach tray at bedside
  • Monitor drains (JP): report sudden ↑ bloody drainage
  • Carotid artery rupture = catastrophic emergency; a small "sentinel bleed" may precede it → call for help, apply pressure
  • Chyle leak: milky drainage

Expected deficits & teaching

  • Shoulder drop + limited ROM if spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) removed → PT/ROM exercises
  • Communication plan pre-op (whiteboard); nutrition support; body image support
Esophageal Obstruction / Food Impaction Emergency
  • Causes: food bolus (meat), strictures, tumors, rings/webs, foreign bodies
  • S/S: sudden dysphagia, drooling / inability to swallow own saliva, chest discomfort, regurgitation of undigested food
  • Inability to handle secretions = airway risk → emergent EGD to remove/push the bolus
  • NPO, upright position, suction ready; after resolution, work up the cause (stricture? cancer? eosinophilic esophagitis?)
Hiatal Hernia ★ High-yield

Two types — know the difference

Sliding (Type I) — ~90%Paraesophageal (rolling)
What movesStomach + GE junction slide up into thorax when supineFundus rolls up beside esophagus; GE junction stays put
SymptomsGERD picture: heartburn, regurgitation, dysphagiaFullness after eating, chest pain, breathlessness — often NO reflux
DangerEsophagitis, BarrettVolvulus/strangulation → ischemia = surgical emergency

Management & teaching

  • Small frequent meals; stay upright 1–2 hr after eating; don't eat 2–3 hr before bed
  • Elevate HOB on 4–6 inch blocks; weight loss; avoid tight clothing, heavy lifting, straining
  • Antacids/PPIs for reflux; surgery = Nissen fundoplication (fundus wrapped around LES). Post-Nissen: small meals, avoid carbonation/gas-producing foods, report dysphagia
GERD ★ High-yield
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Patho / causes

  • Incompetent LES lets gastric acid reflux into esophagus. Risks: obesity, pregnancy, smoking, hiatal hernia, caffeine, alcohol, fatty/fried foods, chocolate, peppermint, carbonation, NSAIDs

Manifestations

  • Pyrosis (heartburn), regurgitation, dyspepsia; worse after meals and lying down
  • Atypical: chronic cough, laryngitis/hoarseness, asthma-like symptoms, sore throat, non-cardiac chest pain (rule out MI first!)

Diagnostics

  • Often clinical + trial of PPI. EGD if alarm signs (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, anemia). Ambulatory 24-hr pH monitoring = most accurate. Barium swallow shows hernia/strictures.

Management (step-up)

  • Lifestyle first: weight loss, elevate HOB (blocks — not pillows), no food 2–3 hr before bed, small low-fat meals, avoid trigger foods, stop smoking/alcohol, stay upright after meals, avoid tight clothes
  • Antacids (PRN symptom relief), H2 blockers (famotidine), PPIs = most effective (omeprazole, pantoprazole) — take 30–60 min BEFORE breakfast
  • PPI long-term risks: fractures/osteoporosis, C. diff, pneumonia, B12 deficiency, hypomagnesemia

Complications

  • Esophagitis → strictures (progressive dysphagia) → Barrett esophagus → adenocarcinoma
Barrett Esophagus
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  • Chronic acid exposure → normal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar (intestinal) cells = metaplasia
  • Precancerous — increases risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma
  • Dx/monitoring: EGD with biopsy; surveillance endoscopy at set intervals
  • Tx: aggressive long-term PPI therapy, GERD lifestyle measures; dysplasia → radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic resection
  • Teaching: this is why "just heartburn" needs follow-up — adherence to surveillance is the key point
Esophageal Cancer
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Risks / patho

  • Adenocarcinoma (lower ⅓): GERD, Barrett, obesity. Squamous cell (upper ⅔): smoking, alcohol.

Manifestations — usually LATE (poor prognosis)

  • Progressive dysphagia: solids first, then liquids — the classic clue
  • Weight loss, odynophagia, regurgitation, hoarseness, chronic cough

Management

  • EGD + biopsy = definitive. Staging CT/EUS/PET.
  • Esophagectomy ± chemo/radiation; stents/dilation for palliation; nutrition support (often enteral) before surgery

Post-esophagectomy priorities

  • Airway/pulmonary hygiene #1 (thoracic incision, aspiration risk); semi-Fowler+
  • NEVER reposition, irrigate, or reinsert the NG tube — it protects the anastomosis; call the surgeon
  • Watch for anastomotic leak: fever, tachycardia, chest pain, subcutaneous emphysema → report immediately
Peptic Ulcer Disease (Gastric vs Duodenal) ★ High-yield
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Causes

  • H. pylori = #1 cause; NSAIDs/aspirin = #2 (block protective prostaglandins); also smoking, alcohol, stress, corticosteroids, Zollinger-Ellison

Gastric vs duodenal — classic exam table

Gastric ulcerDuodenal ulcer
Pain timing30–60 min after meals; eating makes it WORSE2–3 hr after meals + at night; eating RELIEVES it
WeightLoss (afraid to eat)Stable or gain
VomitingMore common; hematemesisLess common; melena more typical
Malignancy riskPossible — biopsy neededRare

Diagnostics

  • EGD with biopsy = gold standard; H. pylori testing: urea breath test (hold PPIs ~2 wk and antibiotics before), stool antigen, biopsy

Management

  • H. pylori: triple therapy = PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (metronidazole if PCN allergy), 10–14 days — finish ALL of it
  • Stop NSAIDs, smoking, alcohol, caffeine; sucralfate coats ulcer (give on empty stomach, 1 hr before meals, not with other meds); misoprostol protects if NSAIDs unavoidable (never in pregnancy)

Complications — know all three

  • Hemorrhage (most common): hematemesis, coffee-ground emesis, melena, ↓BP ↑HR → NPO, 2 large-bore IVs, fluids/blood, endoscopic hemostasis
  • Perforation (most lethal): sudden, severe upper abd pain → rigid board-like abdomen, shoulder pain (referred), fever, absent bowel sounds = peritonitis → NPO, NG suction, IV fluids + antibiotics, emergency surgery. Do NOT give anything PO.
  • Obstruction (pyloric): fullness, vomiting undigested food, distension
🚨 Sudden relief of ulcer pain followed by a rigid abdomen = perforation until proven otherwise.
Gastritis
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  • Acute: NSAIDs, alcohol, stress (burns, sepsis, ICU = stress ulcer prophylaxis), contaminated food. S/S: epigastric pain, N/V, anorexia, possible bleeding.
  • Chronic: H. pylori (most common) or autoimmune (attacks parietal cells → no intrinsic factor → pernicious anemia)
  • Tx: remove the cause; NPO during acute phase then clear liquids → bland diet; PPIs/H2 blockers; treat H. pylori; B12 for autoimmune type
  • Teaching: avoid alcohol, NSAIDs, caffeine, spicy foods; small frequent meals; report black/tarry stools
Gastric Cancer
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  • Risks: H. pylori, chronic gastritis, pernicious anemia, smoked/salted/pickled foods, smoking, family history, prior gastric surgery
  • Early = vague → usually diagnosed LATE: early satiety, anorexia, weight loss, vague epigastric discomfort, fatigue (anemia)
  • Late: palpable mass, ascites, obstruction signs
  • Dx: EGD + biopsy; CT for staging; CEA/CA 19-9 markers may be monitored
  • Tx: gastrectomy (partial/total) ± chemo/radiation → leads to gastrectomy complications below (dumping, B12 deficiency)
Gastric Surgery / Gastrectomy ★ High-yield

Post-op priorities

  • NG tube to decompress: do NOT irrigate or reposition without a surgeon's order (protects the suture line); scant bloody drainage early = expected, frank red bleeding or large volumes = report
  • Semi-Fowler; pulmonary hygiene (incentive spirometer, splint incision); early ambulation; monitor for anastomotic leak (fever, tachycardia, abd pain)

Long-term complications — the exam favorites

  • Dumping syndrome (see its own card)
  • Pernicious anemia: parietal cells gone → no intrinsic factor → lifelong B12 injections
  • Iron-deficiency anemia, calcium/vitamin D malabsorption → osteoporosis, weight loss
Pernicious Anemia
  • Patho: autoimmune destruction of parietal cells (or gastrectomy) → no intrinsic factor → B12 can't be absorbed in the ileum
  • S/S: fatigue, pallor, beefy red smooth sore tongue (glossitis), and the differentiator — neuro signs: paresthesias (numbness/tingling), ataxia, ↓proprioception, confusion
  • Dx: ↓serum B12, macrocytic RBCs (↑MCV), intrinsic factor antibodies
  • Tx: lifelong parenteral (IM) B12 — weekly then monthly — or high-dose intranasal; oral won't work without intrinsic factor
  • Teaching: it's lifelong; missed doses → irreversible neuro damage; safety with ataxia (falls)
⭐ Neuro symptoms distinguish B12 deficiency from iron deficiency. Beefy red tongue = pernicious anemia buzzword.
Dumping Syndrome ★ High-yield

Patho

  • After gastrectomy/bypass, hypertonic chyme "dumps" rapidly into the jejunum → fluid shifts into the bowel (early) → then insulin surge (late)
Early (15–30 min after eating)Late (2–3 hr after eating)
CauseFluid shift into bowel → ↓circulating volumeCarb load → insulin spike → hypoglycemia
S/SDizziness, tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping, urge to defecate, diarrheaShakiness, sweating, confusion, weakness, hunger

Teaching — mostly diet (this is the tested part)

  • Small, frequent meals (5–6/day)
  • High protein, high fat, LOW simple carbohydrate — no sweets/sugary drinks
  • NO fluids WITH meals — drink 30–60 min before or after
  • Lie down (recumbent/semi-recumbent) 20–30 min after meals to slow gastric emptying
  • Avoid very hot/cold foods; symptoms usually improve over months

Module 12 · Lower GI, Intestinal & Rectal Disorders Exam 5 ★ Deep dive

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GI Disorders – Exam 5 Deep-Dive Index
GI Disorders – Exam 5 Deep-Dive Index
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Colonoscopy Procedure

Prep — where the exam questions live

  • Clear liquids day before; NO red, purple, or orange liquids (mimics blood)
  • Bowel prep (polyethylene glycol/GoLYTELY): drink chilled, expect voluminous diarrhea — stool should be clear/yellow liquid when ready
  • NPO ~4–8 hr before; hold anticoagulants/some meds per provider; adjust diabetic meds

Post-procedure

  • Expected: cramping, gas, bloating — encourage passing flatus; small amount of blood if polypectomy
  • Perforation signs = report STAT: severe abd pain, rigid/distended abdomen, fever, rectal bleeding, tachycardia/hypotension
  • Sedation safety: no driving ×24 hr, escort home
Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Procedure ★ High-yield

Basics

  • IV nutrition when the gut can't be used (obstruction, fistula, severe IBD/pancreatitis, prolonged ileus)
  • TPN (>10% dextrose, hyperosmolar) → central line only (PICC/central). Peripheral PN = lower concentration only.

Nursing management — the tested rules

  • Glucose checks q4–6h — hyperglycemia is the most common metabolic complication (may need insulin)
  • Never stop TPN abruptly → rebound hypoglycemia. If the next bag is unavailable, hang D10W at the same rate.
  • Change bag + tubing q24h; use a filter; dedicated lumen — no meds, blood draws, or other fluids through the TPN line
  • Don't "catch up" a behind-schedule infusion — keep the ordered rate (use a pump)
  • Refrigerated bags → room temperature ~30–60 min before hanging; inspect for cracked/oily emulsion
  • Daily weights, strict I&O, monitor electrolytes/LFTs

Complications

  • Infection/line sepsis = biggest threat (glucose-rich = bacteria food): fever → suspect the line; sterile dressing changes
  • Refeeding syndrome in malnourished: watch ↓phosphate, ↓K⁺, ↓Mg²⁺ → dysrhythmias; start slow
  • Fluid overload; air embolism (clamp, left side-lying Trendelenburg if suspected); pneumothorax at insertion
Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
  • Functional disorder — no structural damage or inflammation (vs IBD!). Brain-gut axis; often stress-linked; women > men
  • S/S: abdominal pain relieved by defecation, altered bowel pattern (IBS-C/D/mixed), bloating, mucus. NO bleeding, weight loss, fever, or anemia — those are red flags for something else.
  • Dx: Rome criteria after ruling out organic disease
  • Management: food diary, low-FODMAP diet trial, avoid gas-formers/caffeine/alcohol; soluble fiber for IBS-C; loperamide for IBS-D; antispasmodics; stress management/CBT
Diverticulosis vs Diverticulitis ★ High-yield
  • Diverticula = pouches herniate through weak colon wall (usually sigmoid). Low-fiber diet + chronic constipation + ↑pressure.
DiverticulosisDiverticulitis
WhatPouches present, no inflammationPouches inflamed/infected
S/SUsually noneLLQ pain, fever, ↑WBC, N/V, altered bowel habits
DietHIGH fiber, fluids, exerciseAcute: NPO/clear liquids → LOW residue while healing → high fiber after
  • Acute flare: bowel rest, antibiotics, pain control; NO colonoscopy, barium enema, laxatives, or enemas (perforation risk)
  • Complications: abscess, fistula, obstruction, perforation → peritonitis
Colorectal Cancer ★ High-yield
  • Risks: age (screen at 45), polyps, IBD, family hx/FAP/Lynch, red/processed meat, low fiber, alcohol, smoking, obesity
  • Left/sigmoid/rectal: change in bowel habits, pencil/ribbon stools, bright red blood, obstruction
  • Right-sided: vague pain, occult blood, iron-deficiency anemia, fatigue, RLQ mass
  • Unexplained iron-deficiency anemia in an older adult = colon cancer until proven otherwise
  • Colonoscopy = gold standard (sees + removes polyps); CEA monitors treatment (not screening); surgery ± colostomy, chemo/radiation
GI Bleed Emergency ★ High-yield
  • Upper (PUD #1, varices, Mallory-Weiss): hematemesis, coffee-ground emesis, melena (black tarry)
  • Lower (diverticula, polyps, cancer, hemorrhoids, IBD): hematochezia (bright red)
  • Tachycardia = FIRST sign of hypovolemia — before BP drops; two large-bore IVs, isotonic fluids, type & cross, transfuse
  • NPO, O₂, monitor VS + UOP (≥30 mL/hr); H&H lags behind acute loss; endoscopy for dx + treatment; IV PPI for upper bleed
Constipation, Diarrhea & Fecal Incontinence
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  • Constipation: fiber 25–35 g/day, fluids, exercise, don't ignore the urge; bulk-forming laxative with full glass water; cardiac clients avoid straining/Valsalva → give stool softeners
  • Diarrhea: watch dehydration, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis; skin barrier care; C. diff = contact precautions + soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol gel doesn't kill spores)
  • Fecal incontinence: bowel training (consistent timing), pelvic floor exercises, fiber, skin protection, dignity
Hemorrhoids & Pilonidal Cyst
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  • Hemorrhoids: dilated rectal veins from straining/constipation/pregnancy. Conservative: high fiber + fluids, sitz baths, topical agents, stool softeners; post-hemorrhoidectomy: pain expected, sitz baths, prevent constipation, watch bleeding/urinary retention
  • Pilonidal cyst: infected sinus in the tailbone (sacrococcygeal) area; I&D + wound packing (heals by secondary intention); keep clean/dry/hair-free, avoid prolonged sitting
Celiac Disease ★ High-yield
  • Autoimmune: gluten → attack on small-bowel villi → villous atrophy → malabsorption
  • S/S: diarrhea, steatorrhea (fatty foul floating stools), weight loss, bloating, anemia, dermatitis herpetiformis (itchy blistering rash)
  • Dx: tTG-IgA → confirm with EGD + biopsy. Keep eating gluten until testing done
  • Tx = lifelong strict gluten-free diet. Avoid BROW: Barley, Rye, Oats (cross-contam), Wheat. Safe: rice, corn, potato, quinoa. Read every label; separate toaster.
Appendicitis Emergency ★ High-yield
  • Periumbilical pain that migrates to RLQ (McBurney point), rebound tenderness, N/V after pain, low fever, ↑WBC; Rovsing sign
  • Comfort: side-lying, knees flexed. NPO, IV fluids, analgesia
  • NO heat, NO enemas, NO laxatives → rupture risk. Sudden pain relief = probable rupture → peritonitis → notify provider
  • Post-op ruptured: semi-Fowler (localizes drainage), IV antibiotics, possible drain
Peritonitis Emergency
  • Bacteria in sterile peritoneum (perforation, ruptured organ, PD infection) → fluid shifts (third-spacing) → hypovolemia + sepsis
  • Rigid board-like abdomen, rebound tenderness, severe pain worse with movement (lies still, knees flexed), fever, ↑HR, ↓BP, absent bowel sounds
  • NPO + NG suction, aggressive IV fluids, broad-spectrum IV antibiotics, semi-Fowler; watch for septic shock; surgery to fix source
IBD: Ulcerative Colitis vs Crohn ★ High-yield
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Ulcerative colitisCrohn disease
LocationRectum → colon, continuousMouth to anus, skip lesions, terminal ileum
DepthMucosalTransmural, cobblestone
StoolBloody diarrhea + mucus, 10–20/day, LLQ, tenesmusNon-bloody, steatorrhea, RLQ pain
ComplicationsToxic megacolon, hemorrhage, ↑↑colon cancerFistulas, strictures, abscess, B12 deficiency
SurgeryColectomy = curativeNOT curative — recurs
Diet (flare)Low-residue, high-protein, high-calorie, small frequent; NPO+TPN if severe
  • 5-ASA (sulfasalazine): with food + water, orange urine normal, take folic acid, sunscreen; sulfa allergy = contraindicated
  • Corticosteroids: flares only, taper. Biologics (infliximab): TB test first, infection risk
UC = Uninterrupted, Colon-only, bloody. CROHN = Cobblestone, Right-sided, Obstruction/fistulas, High B12 risk, Not cured by surgery.
Bowel Obstruction & Hernia Emergency ★ High-yield
Small bowel (SBO)Large bowel (LBO)
CauseAdhesions (#1), herniasTumors (#1), volvulus
VomitingEarly, profuse, may be fecalLate/absent
DistensionMild–moderateMarked
Acid–baseMetabolic alkalosisMetabolic acidosis
  • NPO + NG tube to decompress, IV fluids + electrolytes (watch K⁺), strict I&O, semi-Fowler
  • Strangulation: constant severe pain (was colicky), fever, ↑HR, ↑WBC, rigid abdomen → emergency surgery
  • Hernia: reducible → incarcerated → strangulated (severe pain, N/V, fever, tense tender mass = surgical emergency). Post-repair: no lifting 4–6 wk, prevent constipation, splint to cough
Ileostomy & Colostomy ★ High-yield

Stoma assessment — first priority every time

  • Healthy: pink-red, moist, shiny; mild edema + tiny bleeding when cleaned = normal early
  • Pale = anemia; dusky/purple/black = ischemia → surgical emergency, report immediately
IleostomyColostomy
OutputLiquid, continuous, enzyme-rich (skin damage)More formed the more distal
Big risksDehydration, ↓K⁺/↓Na⁺, food blockageConstipation, skin issues
RulesNO laxatives/enemas; avoid enteric-coated/ER medsSigmoid can be trained with irrigation
  • Empty pouch at ⅓ full; change wafer q3–7 days or if leaking; cut opening ~1/8" larger than stoma; measure each change (shrinks over 6–8 wk)
  • Ileostomy: avoid blockage foods — popcorn, nuts, seeds, corn, celery, raw cabbage, dried fruit, mushrooms; chew well
  • Odor/gas: limit onions, eggs, fish, cabbage, beans, carbonation; support body image + ostomy groups

Module 13 · Musculoskeletal Disorders & Trauma Final — new content ★ Deep dive

Musculoskeletal graphics 1 graphic
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Neurovascular Assessment (6 P's) ★ High-yield
  • Assess distal to the injury/cast, compare both sides, q1h ×24h then routinely
  • Pain — disproportionate, unrelieved by opioids, worse with passive stretch = danger
  • Pulses — dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial; compare bilaterally
  • Pallor — color/temperature distal to injury (cool, pale = arterial compromise)
  • Paresthesia — numbness/tingling = early nerve ischemia
  • Pulselessness — late, ominous
  • Paralysis — inability to move = late/severe
⭐ Pain unrelieved by opioids + pain on passive stretch = earliest red flag for compartment syndrome.
Fractures & Casts ★ High-yield

Fractures

  • Types: open (skin broken — infection/osteomyelitis risk), closed, comminuted, greenstick, spiral (suspect abuse), pathologic
  • Hip fracture: affected leg shortened, externally rotated, painful; often elderly post-fall; surgery (ORIF/arthroplasty) + early mobilization; VTE + pneumonia + skin prevention
  • Care: immobilize, neurovascular checks, ice + elevate early, pain control, traction if ordered

Casts

  • Fiberglass dries 15–30 min; plaster 24–72 hr (handle with palms, keep dry, uncovered to dry)
  • Elevate above heart first 24–48 hr; ice; never insert objects; report drainage/odor/hot spots (infection), or blue/cold/numb digits + unrelieved pain (compartment syndrome)
  • Petal rough edges; teach isometric exercises to prevent muscle atrophy
Compartment Syndrome Emergency ★ High-yield
  • Pressure builds in a fascial compartment → nerve/muscle ischemia & death. Most common cause: tight cast or severe edema post-fracture
  • Signs (6 P's): Pain out of proportion + worse with passive stretch = EARLIEST, tense/tight extremity → pallor → paresthesia → pulselessness → paralysis (late)

Actions — in order

  • 1. Notify provider immediately
  • 2. Loosen/remove or bivalve the cast
  • 3. Prepare for fasciotomy
🚨 NEVER elevate above heart (reduces arterial flow) and NEVER apply ice (vasoconstriction) in compartment syndrome — keep at heart level.
Traction: Skin vs Skeletal + Pin Care
Skin (e.g. Buck's)Skeletal
Weight5–10 lb15–30 lb
Purpose↓muscle spasm, temporary pre-opLong-term bony realignment
PinsNone (attached to skin)Pins through bone → pin care q8h
  • Golden rules: weights hang FREELY (never resting on floor/bed), never remove without an order, maintain alignment + counter-traction, ropes knot-free on the pulleys
  • Pin care: serosanguineous drainage = normal (don't remove crust); purulent + redness + warmth + pin loosening = infection → report; clean per protocol (NS/chlorhexidine, not povidone-iodine)
Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) Emergency ★ High-yield
  • Occurs 24–72 hr after a long-bone or pelvic fracture (fat globules enter bloodstream)
  • Classic triad: ① hypoxemia (↑RR, ↓SpO₂, PaO₂<60), ② neuro changes (confusion, restlessness), ③ petechial rash on chest/neck/axillae ← pathognomonic
  • Management: supportive — O₂ ± BiPAP ± intubation, bed rest, IV fluids; early fracture immobilization prevents it
🚨 FES is NOT a clotting disorder — anticoagulants are NOT the treatment (unlike DVT/PE). Support oxygenation.
Osteomyelitis & Avascular Necrosis
  • Osteomyelitis: bone infection (often after open fracture/surgery/bacteremia). Constant deep throbbing bone pain, local redness/warmth/swelling, fever, ↑ESR/CRP/WBC; MRI = best early (X-ray changes lag 10–21 days)
  • Tx: long-term (4–6+ wk) IV antibiotics, possible surgical debridement, immobilize, pain control
  • Avascular necrosis: loss of blood supply → bone death (common in hip fracture, chronic steroids); pain + ↓ROM → may need arthroplasty
Osteoarthritis (and OA vs RA) ★ High-yield
Osteoarthritis (OA)Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
TypeDegenerative "wear & tear"Autoimmune, inflammatory
PatternAsymmetric, weight-bearing jointsSymmetric, small joints
Stiffness<30 min, worse with activity, better with rest>1 hr (morning), better with activity
SignsHeberden (DIP) & Bouchard (PIP) nodes; no systemic sxRheumatoid nodules; fatigue, fever, ↑ESR/CRP/RF
TreatmentAcetaminophen first, then NSAIDs; injections; joint replacementDMARDs (methotrexate), biologics, steroids
⭐ OA = worse with activity, relieved by rest. RA = worse with rest, relieved by activity. Never start OA pain with opioids.
Osteoporosis
  • ↓bone density → fragility fractures (hip, wrist, vertebrae → kyphosis, height loss). Risks: postmenopausal, thin, smoking, steroids, low Ca/D, inactivity, alcohol
  • Dx: DEXA scan (T-score ≤ −2.5). Prevention/tx: Ca + vitamin D, weight-bearing exercise, fall prevention
  • Bisphosphonates (alendronate): take on empty stomach with full glass of water, stay upright 30 min (esophagitis risk), before other food/meds
Joint Arthroplasty & Orthopedic Surgery Procedure ★ High-yield

Total hip (posterior approach) precautions

  • No hip flexion >90° (no low chairs/toilets — raised seat), no crossing legs/midline (abduction pillow), no internal rotation
  • Signs of dislocation: sudden pain, shortening, internal/external rotation, "pop" → notify surgeon

Total knee

  • Early CPM/PT, encourage extension + flexion, ice, pain control before therapy

All ortho surgery

  • VTE prophylaxis (anticoagulants, SCDs, early ambulation), neurovascular checks, watch for infection + bleeding, pain management, fall prevention
Amputation ★ High-yield
  • Immediate priority = hemorrhage: keep a tourniquet at bedside; if the stump bleeds, apply direct pressure + tourniquet, notify surgeon
  • Phantom limb pain is REAL — treat it (don't dismiss); gabapentin, mirror therapy, etc.
  • Positioning: elevate stump on pillow first 24 hr for edema, then avoid prolonged elevation/pillows to prevent flexion contracture; prone periodically (BKA/AKA); figure-8 stump wrapping to shape for prosthesis
  • Body image support, PT, monitor incision for infection/healing (especially diabetics/PAD)
Non-Fracture Injuries: Sprains, Strains, Dislocations
  • Sprain = ligament; strain = muscle/tendon; dislocation = joint out of alignment (neurovascular check, reduce, immobilize)
  • RICE: Rest, Ice (first 24–48 hr, 20 min on/off), Compression, Elevation; ice not heat early (heat later for chronic)

Endocrine Disorders Med-Surg review

Endocrine Disorders 14 graphics
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Hematology & Blood Med-Surg review

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Assessment & Abdominal Regions Review

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The exam loves "which one is it?" questions. These are the highest-yield comparison tables across the whole course.

1 · Gastric vs Duodenal Ulcer

GastricDuodenal
Pain30–60 min after eating; food = WORSE2–3 hr after + night; food = BETTER
WeightLossStable/gain
MalignancyPossible — biopsyRare

2 · UC vs Crohn

UCCrohn
WhereColon only, continuousMouth→anus, skip lesions
DepthMucosalTransmural, cobblestone
StoolBloody+mucus, LLQNon-bloody, steatorrhea, RLQ
SurgeryCurativeNot curative

3 · Early vs Late Dumping Syndrome

Early (15–30 min)Late (2–3 hr)
MechanismFluid shift into bowelInsulin surge → hypoglycemia
FixSmall meals · high protein/fat, low simple carbs · no fluids with meals · lie down after eating

4 · SBO vs LBO

Small bowelLarge bowel
VomitingEarly, profuseLate/absent
DistensionMild–moderateMarked
Acid–baseMetabolic alkalosisMetabolic acidosis

5 · Upper vs Lower GI Bleed

UpperLower
Looks likeHematemesis, coffee-ground, melenaHematochezia (bright red)
First sign of shockTachycardia (before BP drops); H&H lags behind acute loss

6 · Ileostomy vs Colostomy

IleostomyColostomy
OutputLiquid, continuous, corrosiveFormed (more distal = more formed)
WatchDehydration, ↓K⁺/Na⁺, blockage foodsConstipation
BothPink-red moist = good · dusky/black = emergency · empty at ⅓ full

7 · OA vs RA

OARA
TypeDegenerativeAutoimmune
PatternAsymmetric, worse w/ activitySymmetric, worse w/ rest
Stiffness<30 min>1 hr morning

8 · PAD vs PVD (venous)

PAD (arterial)PVD (venous)
SkinCool, pale, shiny, hairless; punched-out ulcersWarm, brown, edema; ankle ulcers
PositionDangle legsElevate legs

9 · Delirium vs Dementia

DeliriumDementia
OnsetSudden, fluctuatesGradual, progressive
Reversible?Yes — find the cause (UTI, meds, hypoxia)No

10 · Shockable vs Non-Shockable Rhythms

Shock it (defib)Don't shock (CPR + epi)
V-fib, pulseless V-tachAsystole, PEA

11 · Left vs Right Heart Failure

Left HF (Lungs)Right HF (Body)
Crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, frothy sputumJVD, peripheral edema, weight gain, ascites
NGN-style + dosage practice across every module. Pick your answer(s), hit Check, and read the rationale even when you're right.
Priority

1. An 82-year-old is admitted with new-onset confusion and agitation. What should the nurse assess FIRST?

c. Sudden confusion = delirium until proven otherwise — hunt for a reversible cause (UTI is classic in elders). It's not normal aging or automatically dementia; avoid restraints.
Multiple choice

2. A home-care nurse suspects an older client is being neglected by a caregiver. The nurse's responsibility is to:

c. Nurses are mandatory reporters — report suspicion (you don't need proof). Interview the client alone.
Priority

3. A client with CKD has a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which finding is the priority concern?

a. Hyperkalemia → peaked T waves → wide QRS → arrest. Cardiac effects are the priority; anticipate calcium gluconate, insulin + D50.
Multiple choice

4. An order reads "potassium chloride 20 mEq IV push." The nurse should:

b. IV KCl is NEVER pushed (fatal dysrhythmia) — always diluted on a pump, max ~10 mEq/hr; confirm urine output first.
ABG

5. ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 38, HCO₃ 16. This represents:

b. Low pH + low HCO₃ (metabolic value moves the same direction as pH) = metabolic acidosis — think DKA, diarrhea, renal failure. CO₂ is normal.
Priority

6. A post-op client's abdominal incision opens and loops of bowel protrude. The nurse's first action?

b. Evisceration: cover with sterile saline-moistened gauze, low-Fowler with knees bent (↓tension), NPO, stay calm, notify surgeon.
Multiple choice

7. Which statement about acetaminophen needs correction?

c. Alcohol + acetaminophen ↑ hepatotoxicity; combo products stack the dose (max 4 g/day, 3 g in liver disease). Antidote = acetylcysteine.
Multiple choice

8. A nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest drainage system. This indicates:

b. Tidaling (rise/fall with breathing) is normal; continuous bubbling in the water seal = air leak. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber is expected.
Multiple choice

9. What is the appropriate oxygen goal for a client with COPD?

a. Low-flow O₂ titrated to 88–92%. Excessive O₂ can blunt the hypoxic drive in chronic CO₂ retainers — but never withhold needed oxygen.
Priority

10. During an asthma attack the wheezing suddenly stops and the chest is silent. This means:

c. A silent chest = no air movement = impending respiratory failure. Escalate immediately.
Multiple choice

11. Before giving digoxin, the apical pulse is 54 and regular. The nurse should:

b. Hold digoxin if apical HR <60. Also watch toxicity (yellow-green halos, N/V) — and hypokalemia raises toxicity risk.
Multiple choice

12. Which rhythm is treated with defibrillation?

c. Shockable = V-fib and pulseless V-tach. Asystole/PEA get CPR + epinephrine, not a shock.
Multiple choice

13. Which finding should a client with heart failure report to the provider?

a. Rapid gain (2–3 lb/day or 5 lb/week) signals fluid retention/worsening HF. Daily weights, same scale/time.
Multiple choice

14. A client has a new AV fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which action is correct?

c. Feel the thrill, hear the bruit each shift. No BP, IV, or venipuncture in the fistula arm; no tight sleeves.
Multiple choice

15. A client on peritoneal dialysis has cloudy outflow (effluent). This suggests:

b. Cloudy effluent = peritonitis, the major PD complication → notify, obtain culture, sterile technique.
Multiple choice

16. Lactulose is prescribed for hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse titrates to achieve:

a. Lactulose traps and excretes ammonia in stool; goal is 2–3 soft stools/day (too many → dehydration).
Multiple choice

17. After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy a client reports right shoulder pain. The nurse recognizes this as:

b. Insufflated CO₂ irritates the diaphragm → referred shoulder pain. Normal — ambulation and position changes help it dissipate.
Multiple choice

18. After an EGD with moderate sedation, which must the nurse assess before offering fluids?

b. The throat is anesthetized — anything PO before the gag reflex returns risks aspiration. Airway first.
SATA

19. Teaching for dumping syndrome — select all correct:

b, c, d. Fluids with meals (a) and simple sugars (e) both worsen dumping. Drink 30–60 min before/after meals.
Priority

20. A duodenal ulcer client's pain suddenly stops; abdomen is rigid, HR 118, BP 96/60. First action?

c. Sudden pain relief + rigid abdomen + shock vitals = perforation with peritonitis. NPO, notify, prep for surgery.
SATA

21. Acute diverticulitis — which orders would the nurse question? Select all:

b, c, e. During a flare the bowel must rest — high fiber, scopes, and enemas raise perforation risk. High fiber is for AFTER healing.
Multiple choice

22. TPN bag runs dry; next bag is an hour away. What should the nurse hang?

b. Stopping TPN abruptly → rebound hypoglycemia. D10W at the same rate maintains glucose until the new bag arrives.
Multiple choice

23. Four ostomy clients call. Who does the nurse call back FIRST?

c. Dusky/purple stoma = ischemia = surgical emergency. The others are normal early findings.
SATA

24. Which findings indicate Crohn (not UC)? Select all:

a, c, e = Crohn. Continuous rectal inflammation (b) and frequent bloody stools (d) are the UC picture.
Priority

25. Suspected peritonitis: BP 88/54, HR 126, rigid abdomen. First action?

b. These vitals = hypovolemia/early septic shock from third-spacing — restore circulation first. The rest follow quickly.
Multiple choice

26. Appendicitis client asks for a heating pad. The nurse declines because heat can:

b. Heat ↑ blood flow/inflammation → rupture → peritonitis. Same reason enemas and laxatives are banned.
Multiple choice

27. Which statement shows effective celiac teaching?

c. Gluten-free is lifelong and strict. Wheat (a), any time limit (b), and barley-based beer (d) are all wrong.
Multiple choice

28. SBO with NG tube to suction — anticipated lab finding?

b. Losing gastric HCl + K⁺ through suction/vomiting → metabolic alkalosis + hypokalemia.
Multiple choice

29. A client on sulfasalazine for UC needs more teaching when they say:

d. 5-ASAs are maintenance — stopping when symptoms resolve invites relapse.
Priority / MSK

30. 6 hours after casting a tibial fracture, the client reports deep pain unrelieved by opioids and worse when toes are moved. First action?

c. Pain out of proportion + pain on passive stretch = compartment syndrome. Notify, prepare to bivalve the cast/fasciotomy. Do NOT elevate above heart or ice (reduces perfusion).
SATA / MSK

31. 48 hours after a long-bone fracture, a client has confusion, SpO₂ 88%, and a petechial rash on the chest. Which are appropriate? Select all:

a, c, d, e. Classic fat embolism triad — treatment is supportive (O₂, respiratory support, rest). Heparin (b) is NOT indicated; FES is not a clotting disorder.
Multiple choice / MSK

32. Which statement by a post-op total hip (posterior) client needs correction?

c. Bending forward flexes the hip >90° → dislocation risk. Abduction pillow, raised seat, and no leg crossing are all correct.
Dosage calc

33. Pantoprazole 40 mg in 100 mL NS over 30 min. Pump rate?

c. 100 mL ÷ 30 min × 60 = 200 mL/hr.
Dosage calc

34. Infliximab 5 mg/kg IV for a client weighing 176 lb. Dose?

b. 176 ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg × 5 mg = 400 mg.
Dosage calc

35. 1,000 mL LR over 8 hr, drop factor 15 gtt/mL. Drip rate?

c. 125 mL/hr × 15 ÷ 60 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min.
Dosage calc

36. Metronidazole 500 mg PO TID, available 250 mg tabs. Tablets per DAY?

d. 2 tabs/dose × 3 doses = 6 tabs/day. Watch per-dose vs per-day.
Dosage calc

37. Heparin 25,000 units in 250 mL D5W, ordered at 800 units/hr. Pump rate (mL/hr)?

b. Concentration = 25,000 units ÷ 250 mL = 100 units/mL. 800 ÷ 100 = 8 mL/hr.

💊 Medications Ready for content

Medications & Pharmacology 7 graphics
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This tab is set up and waiting for your content. Send me your med lists / concept cards and I'll build them in here — drug class, action, indications, adverse effects, nursing considerations, and client teaching, organized however you like (by system, by exam, or by drug class).

Suggested layout (tell me if you want something different)

  • Grouped by drug class with a quick-reference table (suffix → class → key nursing point)
  • Expandable card per medication with the 6-point framework
  • High-alert meds flagged, antidotes noted, and "don't confuse with" look-alike pairs
Organized by drug class — the pattern-based way to learn pharm. Each card = the class prototype & members found in Brunner + ATI, mechanism, uses, key adverse effects, nursing priorities, and client teaching. ⚠ = high-alert drug. Use the search bar up top to jump to any drug.

❤️ Cardiovascular

ACE Inhibitors -pril
  • Drugs: lisinopril, enalapril, captopril, ramipril
  • Action: block conversion of angiotensin I → II → vasodilation, ↓BP, ↓aldosterone (less Na⁺/water retention)
  • Uses: HTN, heart failure, post-MI, diabetic nephropathy (renal protective)
  • Adverse: dry hacking cough, hyperkalemia, first-dose hypotension, angioedema (airway emergency), ↑creatinine
  • Nursing: monitor BP, K⁺, renal function; hold for angioedema; avoid K⁺-sparing diuretics/salt substitutes
  • Teaching: report facial/lip swelling or persistent cough; rise slowly; no pregnancy (teratogenic)
ARBs -sartan
  • Drugs: losartan, valsartan
  • Action: block angiotensin II at the receptor → vasodilation, ↓BP. No cough (used when ACE cough intolerable)
  • Uses: HTN, HF, nephropathy. Adverse: hyperkalemia, hypotension, angioedema (rare), fetal harm
  • Nursing/teaching: same monitoring as ACE (BP, K⁺, renal); no pregnancy; rise slowly
Beta-Blockers -olol
  • Drugs: metoprolol, atenolol, carvedilol, propranolol, esmolol, nadolol, timolol
  • Action: block β-adrenergic receptors → ↓HR, ↓contractility, ↓BP, ↓cardiac workload
  • Uses: HTN, angina, post-MI, HF (carvedilol, metoprolol), dysrhythmias, migraine prophylaxis
  • Adverse: bradycardia, hypotension, fatigue, masks hypoglycemia signs, bronchospasm (avoid non-selective in asthma/COPD)
  • Nursing: check apical HR & BP before giving — hold if HR <60 or SBP <90; don't stop abruptly (rebound tachycardia/angina)
  • Teaching: taper, not stop; diabetics monitor glucose closely; rise slowly
Calcium Channel Blockers -dipine, diltiazem, verapamil
  • Drugs: amlodipine, nifedipine, nicardipine, nimodipine, felodipine (vascular); diltiazem, verapamil (also slow the heart)
  • Action: block Ca²⁺ entry → vasodilation ± ↓HR/contractility. Nimodipine = prevents cerebral vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Uses: HTN, angina, some dysrhythmias (diltiazem/verapamil for A-fib rate control)
  • Adverse: hypotension, peripheral edema, headache, constipation (verapamil), bradycardia (non-dihydropyridines)
  • Teaching: avoid grapefruit juice (↑levels); rise slowly; report swelling; don't crush ER forms
Diuretics (Loop, Thiazide, K-Sparing, Osmotic)
  • Loop — furosemide: most potent; ↓Na⁺/K⁺/Ca²⁺; watch hypokalemia, ototoxicity, dehydration. Give AM; monitor K⁺.
  • Thiazide (HCTZ): mild; hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, ↑Ca²⁺.
  • K-sparing — spironolactone: keeps K⁺ → hyperkalemia risk, gynecomastia. Avoid salt substitutes/K⁺ foods excess.
  • Osmotic — mannitol: ↓ICP & intraocular pressure; monitor for fluid overload/pulmonary edema; use filter.
  • Teaching: take in the morning (nocturia), daily weight, rise slowly, eat K⁺-rich foods (loop/thiazide) or avoid them (K-sparing)
Nitrates & Vasodilators
  • Drugs: nitroglycerin, isosorbide; hydralazine; nitroprusside (IV hypertensive emergencies)
  • Action: vasodilation → ↓preload/afterload, ↓cardiac O₂ demand; relieves angina
  • Adverse: headache (expected), hypotension, reflex tachycardia, flushing; nitroprusside → cyanide toxicity (monitor)
  • Nursing/teaching (SL nitro): sit down; 1 tab q5 min ×3, call 911 if no relief after the first dose; store in dark glass; expect tingling/burning; no PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil) → fatal hypotension
⚠ Digoxin (Cardiac Glycoside)
  • Action: ↑contractility (positive inotrope), ↓HR; for HF and A-fib
  • Nursing: check apical HR ×1 min — hold if <60; therapeutic level 0.5–2 ng/mL (narrow)
  • Toxicity: N/V, anorexia, visual halos / yellow-green vision, confusion, dysrhythmias; hypokalemia ↑ toxicity risk
  • Antidote: digoxin immune Fab. Teaching: take same time daily, don't skip/double, report vision changes/pulse <60
Antidysrhythmics & Emergency Cardiac
  • Amiodarone: many rhythms; watch pulmonary toxicity, thyroid, blue-gray skin, ↑QT, liver
  • Adenosine: SVT — rapid IV push + flush; causes brief asystole (warn client)
  • Lidocaine: ventricular dysrhythmias; watch CNS toxicity
  • Atropine: symptomatic bradycardia (↑HR). Epinephrine: cardiac arrest/anaphylaxis. Dopamine/dobutamine/norepinephrine: shock — titrate, central line, monitor extravasation
Statins & Lipid-Lowering -statin
  • Drugs: atorvastatin, simvastatin; cholestyramine (bile acid sequestrant)
  • Action: ↓cholesterol synthesis (HMG-CoA reductase). Adverse: myopathy/rhabdomyolysis (muscle pain + dark urine → ↑CK), ↑liver enzymes
  • Teaching: take in evening, report muscle pain/weakness, avoid grapefruit, LFT monitoring; cholestyramine → give other meds 1 hr before/4 hr after

🩸 Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets & Thrombolytics

⚠ Heparin & LMWH
  • Drugs: heparin (IV/SubQ); LMWH — enoxaparin, dalteparin (SubQ)
  • Action: potentiates antithrombin → prevents clot extension
  • Monitor: heparin → aPTT (1.5–2.5× control); LMWH → no routine labs; watch platelets (HIT)
  • Antidote: protamine sulfate. Adverse: bleeding, HIT
  • Nursing: SubQ in abdomen, don't aspirate or rub; two-nurse check (high-alert). Teaching: bleeding precautions, report bruising/black stools
⚠ Warfarin
  • Action: blocks vitamin K clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). Slow onset (days)
  • Monitor: PT/INR (goal usually 2–3). Antidote: vitamin K (FFP for major bleed)
  • Teaching: keep vitamin K (leafy greens) intake CONSISTENT, don't binge/avoid; many drug/food interactions; report bleeding; regular INR checks; no pregnancy
DOACs (Direct Oral Anticoagulants)
  • Drugs: dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban
  • Action: direct thrombin (dabigatran) or factor Xa (…xaban) inhibitors; no routine INR monitoring
  • Antidote: idarucizumab (dabigatran); andexanet (Xa inhibitors)
  • Teaching: don't stop abruptly (clot/stroke risk), bleeding precautions, take as directed with/without food per drug
Antiplatelets & Thrombolytics
  • Aspirin: irreversible platelet inhibition; MI/stroke prevention; GI bleed/tinnitus (toxicity)
  • Clopidogrel: ADP inhibitor; dual therapy after stents; abciximab (GP IIb/IIIa, cath lab)
  • Thrombolytics — alteplase (tPA): "clot buster" for acute ischemic stroke/STEMI/PE; major bleeding risk, strict time windows & exclusion criteria; monitor neuro/bleeding closely

🫁 Respiratory

Bronchodilators: SABA/LABA & Anticholinergic
  • SABA — albuterol: rescue inhaler, fast β₂ bronchodilation; LABA — salmeterol: maintenance (never monotherapy in asthma)
  • Anticholinergic — ipratropium: bronchodilation, esp. COPD
  • Adverse: tachycardia, tremor, nervousness (β agonists), dry mouth (ipratropium)
  • Teaching: albuterol first, then wait, then steroid inhaler; proper inhaler/spacer technique; overuse = poor control
Inhaled Corticosteroids & Leukotriene Modifiers
  • ICS — fluticasone, beclomethasone, triamcinolone: controller (anti-inflammatory), NOT rescue; rinse mouth to prevent thrush
  • Leukotriene modifiers — montelukast, zafirlukast: oral maintenance, prevent bronchoconstriction; take montelukast in the evening
  • Monoclonal — omalizumab: severe allergic asthma (watch anaphylaxis)
Methylxanthines
  • Drugs: theophylline, aminophylline
  • Action: bronchodilation; narrow therapeutic range (10–20 mcg/mL)
  • Toxicity: tachycardia, dysrhythmias, seizures, N/V, restlessness; avoid caffeine; many interactions. Monitor levels.

🍽️ Gastrointestinal

PPIs -prazole
  • Drugs: omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole, lansoprazole, rabeprazole
  • Action: block gastric acid pump (most effective acid suppression); for GERD, PUD, H. pylori, stress ulcer prophylaxis
  • Adverse (long-term): ↑fracture/osteoporosis, C. diff, pneumonia, B12 & magnesium deficiency
  • Teaching: take 30–60 min before breakfast; don't crush ER; short-term when possible
H2 Blockers & Mucosal Protectants -tidine
  • H2 blockers — famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine, nizatidine: ↓acid; cimetidine has many drug interactions/confusion in elderly
  • Sucralfate: coats the ulcer; give on empty stomach, 1 hr before meals, separate from other meds by ≥2 hr
  • Antacids: quick relief; separate from other drugs by 1–2 hr
Antiemetics & Prokinetics
  • Ondansetron: 5-HT3 blocker; N/V; watch QT prolongation, headache, constipation
  • Metoclopramide: prokinetic + antiemetic; watch extrapyramidal symptoms / tardive dyskinesia, avoid in obstruction
Laxatives, Antidiarrheals & GI Specialty
  • Bulk — psyllium: take with a FULL glass of water. Stool softener — docusate. Stimulant — bisacodyl (short-term)
  • Lactulose: ↓ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy — titrate to 2–3 soft stools/day
  • Loperamide: antidiarrheal (avoid in infectious/C. diff diarrhea)
  • Octreotide: varices, severe diarrhea, GI bleeding (somatostatin analog)

💉 Endocrine & Bone

⚠ Insulin
  • Rapid (lispro/aspart): onset ~15 min — give WITH food. Short (regular): only insulin IV; the one used in DKA drips. Intermediate (NPH): cloudy, peaks. Long (glargine): no peak, don't mix
  • Mixing: draw up clear (regular) before cloudy (NPH) — "clear before cloudy"
  • Hypoglycemia: shaky, sweaty, confused → 15 g fast carbs; high-alert, two-nurse verify
  • Teaching: rotate sites, refrigerate stock/room-temp open vial, monitor glucose
Oral Antidiabetics
  • Metformin (biguanide): first-line T2DM; hold before contrast dye (lactic acidosis/renal); GI upset; doesn't cause hypoglycemia alone
  • Sulfonylureas — glipizide, glyburide: ↑insulin release → hypoglycemia, weight gain; no alcohol
  • Thiazolidinedione — pioglitazone: watch fluid retention/HF, hepatotoxicity
Thyroid — Levothyroxine
  • Action: synthetic T4 for hypothyroidism (lifelong)
  • Teaching: take same time each morning, empty stomach, 30–60 min before food/other meds; don't switch brands; signs of over-replacement = hyperthyroid (palpitations, weight loss, insomnia)
Corticosteroids -sone / -olone
  • Drugs: prednisone, methylprednisolone, hydrocortisone, dexamethasone, prednisolone, cortisone, betamethasone
  • Action: anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressant — huge range of uses
  • Adverse: hyperglycemia, infection risk (masks fever), weight gain/moon face, ↑BP, osteoporosis, mood changes, peptic ulcers, adrenal suppression
  • Teaching: NEVER stop abruptly — taper (adrenal crisis); take with food; report infection signs; monitor glucose/weight/BP
Bisphosphonates & Bone Agents
  • Bisphosphonates — alendronate, ibandronate, pamidronate: osteoporosis. Take on empty stomach with full glass of water, stay upright 30 min (esophagitis), before other food/meds
  • Raloxifene (SERM): osteoporosis; VTE risk. Calcitonin: ↓Ca²⁺, bone pain. Pair with calcium + vitamin D + weight-bearing exercise

🧠 Pain, CNS & Neuro

⚠ Opioids & Naloxone
  • Drugs: morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl, oxycodone, hydrocodone, codeine, oxymorphone
  • Action: bind opioid receptors → analgesia. Monitor sedation + respiratory rate FIRST (resp depression is the danger; hold if RR <12)
  • Adverse: constipation (give a stimulant laxative prophylactically), sedation, N/V, urinary retention, hypotension, pruritus
  • Antidote: naloxone (may need repeat — shorter half-life than opioid). Teaching: no alcohol/CNS depressants, fall risk, don't crush ER
Non-Opioid Analgesics: Acetaminophen & NSAIDs
  • Acetaminophen: max 4 g/day (3 g in liver disease); hepatotoxic in overdose → antidote acetylcysteine; check combo products
  • NSAIDs — ibuprofen, naproxen, ketorolac, aspirin; COX-2 celecoxib: anti-inflammatory; GI bleed, renal injury, ↑BP, bleeding risk; take with food; ketorolac ≤5 days
Neuropathic / Adjuvant Pain Agents
  • Gabapentin, pregabalin: neuropathic pain, seizures; drowsiness/dizziness, don't stop abruptly
  • Amitriptyline (TCA): neuropathic pain/depression; anticholinergic effects, sedation, orthostatic hypotension
  • Triptans — sumatriptan, zolmitriptan: migraine abort; vasoconstriction — avoid in CAD; serotonin syndrome risk
Benzodiazepines & Sedatives
  • Drugs: lorazepam, diazepam, midazolam
  • Uses: anxiety, seizures/status epilepticus, sedation, alcohol withdrawal
  • Adverse: CNS/respiratory depression, sedation, falls, dependence. Antidote: flumazenil. No alcohol; caution with opioids
Anticonvulsants
  • Phenytoin: narrow range (10–20); gingival hyperplasia, ataxia, many interactions; IV slowly (cardiac); consistent brand
  • Levetiracetam: fewer interactions; mood/behavior changes. Phenobarbital: sedation, dependence
  • Teaching (all): don't stop abruptly (status epilepticus), take consistently, report rash (SJS)
Antidepressants & Antipsychotics
  • SSRIs — sertraline, fluoxetine: take weeks to work; serotonin syndrome (agitation, hyperthermia, clonus), ↑suicidal ideation early, sexual dysfunction
  • TCA — amitriptyline: anticholinergic, cardiotoxic in overdose
  • Haloperidol (antipsychotic): extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome (fever, rigidity, altered LOC = emergency), QT
Parkinson, Muscle Relaxants & Cholinergics
  • Levodopa/carbidopa: Parkinson; may take weeks, dyskinesias, orthostatic hypotension, darkened urine/sweat; avoid high-protein timing/excess B6
  • Muscle relaxants — baclofen, cyclobenzaprine: sedation, don't stop baclofen abruptly. Dantrolene = malignant hyperthermia antidote
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors — pyridostigmine, neostigmine: myasthenia gravis; watch cholinergic crisis; reverse NMB

💤 Anesthesia & Neuromuscular Blockers

Anesthetics & Local Anesthetics -caine
  • Local — lidocaine, bupivacaine, procaine, ropivacaine: block nerve conduction; watch systemic toxicity (CNS, cardiac)
  • Induction — propofol: rapid; hypotension, resp depression, "milk" emulsion (infection risk — discard promptly). Ketamine: dissociative; emergence reactions
⚠ Neuromuscular Blockers
  • Depolarizing — succinylcholine: rapid intubation; trigger for malignant hyperthermia, hyperkalemia
  • Non-depolarizing — rocuronium, vecuronium, pancuronium, atracurium: reversed by neostigmine/sugammadex
  • Critical: paralyze but do NOT sedate or relieve pain — always pair with sedation/analgesia; airway/ventilator support mandatory

🦠 Anti-Infectives

Penicillins & Cephalosporins -cillin / cef-
  • Penicillins: amoxicillin, ampicillin, penicillin, nafcillin, piperacillin, dicloxacillin
  • Cephalosporins: ceftriaxone (watch cross-allergy with PCN)
  • Adverse: allergy/anaphylaxis, rash, diarrhea/C. diff. Teaching: finish the full course; report rash/swelling/breathing trouble
Fluoroquinolones & Macrolides
  • Fluoroquinolones — ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin: tendon rupture, QT prolongation, photosensitivity, ↓absorption with antacids/dairy/iron
  • Macrolides — azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin: GI upset, QT prolongation, many interactions
Vancomycin & Aminoglycosides
  • Vancomycin: MRSA/serious G+ ; nephrotoxic, ototoxic; monitor trough levels; "red man syndrome" if infused too fast → slow the rate
  • Aminoglycosides — gentamicin, tobramycin, neomycin, streptomycin: nephrotoxic + ototoxic; monitor peak/trough & renal function
Tetracyclines, Clindamycin, Metronidazole
  • Tetracyclines — doxycycline, tetracycline, minocycline: photosensitivity, no dairy/antacids/iron, no pregnancy or kids <8 (teeth)
  • Clindamycin: high C. diff risk. Metronidazole/tinidazole: NO alcohol (disulfiram reaction), metallic taste, dark urine
Antifungals & Antivirals
  • Antifungals — fluconazole, ketoconazole, miconazole (-azole); nystatin (swish & swallow for thrush): hepatotoxicity, many interactions
  • Antivirals — acyclovir, valacyclovir (herpes/zoster), oseltamivir (flu — start ≤48 hr), ganciclovir (CMV): hydrate (acyclovir nephrotoxicity), start early
Antituberculars (RIPE)
  • Rifampin: turns secretions/urine orange-red (expected), stains contacts; ↓oral contraceptive effect
  • Isoniazid (INH): hepatotoxic, peripheral neuropathy → give B6 (pyridoxine); no alcohol
  • Ethambutol: optic neuritis → report vision changes. Pyrazinamide: hepatotoxic, hyperuricemia
  • Teaching: months-long therapy, adherence is critical (DOT common); LFT monitoring

🚽 Renal / GU & Gout

Urinary / Prostate Agents
  • Tamsulosin (alpha-blocker): BPH — relaxes prostate; orthostatic hypotension (first-dose), take same time after a meal
  • Finasteride (5-ARI): shrinks prostate; takes months; pregnant women shouldn't handle (teratogen); ↓PSA
  • Oxybutynin: overactive bladder (anticholinergic — dry mouth, constipation). Phenazopyridine: urinary analgesic — turns urine orange, stains, short-term
CKD Support & Gout
  • Epoetin/erythropoietin: anemia of CKD; monitor Hgb (don't over-correct — clot/HTN risk), needs iron
  • Sevelamer (phosphate binder): take WITH meals to bind dietary phosphate
  • Allopurinol: chronic gout prevention (↓uric acid) — not for acute attack; hydrate. Colchicine: acute gout — GI/diarrhea limiting

🎗️ Oncology & Immunosuppressants

⚠ Chemotherapy Agents (overview)
  • Alkylating — cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin: cisplatin nephro/ototoxic; cyclophosphamide → hemorrhagic cystitis (hydrate + mesna)
  • Antitumor antibiotics — doxorubicin: cardiotoxic, red urine, vesicant. Antimetabolite — methotrexate: mucositis, myelosuppression (leucovorin rescue)
  • Taxanes — paclitaxel, docetaxel: neuropathy, hypersensitivity
  • General nursing: myelosuppression (infection/bleeding/anemia — neutropenic precautions), N/V, alopecia, mucositis; safe handling of cytotoxics; monitor CBC
Targeted & Biologic Agents -mab / -nib
  • Monoclonal antibodies (-mab) — rituximab, trastuzumab, bevacizumab, cetuximab, infliximab, adalimumab: infusion reactions; trastuzumab cardiotoxic; bevacizumab ↑bleeding/poor healing/HTN
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (-nib) — imatinib: edema, GI, LFTs
  • Hormonal — tamoxifen: breast cancer; VTE and endometrial cancer risk
  • Filgrastim: stimulates neutrophils after chemo (bone pain common)
Immunosuppressants
  • Drugs: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, azathioprine, methotrexate; biologics infliximab/adalimumab
  • Uses: transplant rejection prevention, autoimmune/IBD/RA
  • Adverse: infection risk (screen for TB before biologics), nephrotoxicity (cyclosporine/tacrolimus), monitor drug levels; avoid live vaccines; report fever/sore throat
Scope note: These cards cover the medication classes and drugs found across Brunner & Suddarth and the ATI Med-Surg text (266 distinct drugs detected), grouped by class so the patterns stick. If you want a specific individual drug broken out into its own full card, or a printable table version, just say which.

🧠 Mind Maps Ready for content

This tab is set up and waiting for your content. Send me the disorders/topics you want mapped and I'll build visual concept maps here (patho → causes → s/s → labs → interventions → complications branching out from a central concept).

What works well here

  • Interactive branching diagrams (e.g., "Heart Failure" or "Cirrhosis" with cause/effect arrows)
  • Linking related concepts across modules (how F&E imbalances tie to cardiac, renal, GI)
  • Tell me a topic and I can generate a map you can expand section by section

🔁 Active Review Templates Ready for content

This tab is set up and waiting for your content. Send me what you want and I'll build fill-in / self-quiz templates here — blank frameworks you complete from memory, then reveal the answer.

Template ideas

  • Blank disorder template: you fill patho, s/s, dx, meds, nursing priorities, teaching — click to reveal the key
  • Compare-and-contrast blanks (e.g., two disorders side by side)
  • SBAR / nursing-process worksheets and "teach-back" prompts
  • Say the word and I'll wire in flip-to-reveal cards or printable blanks

📄 Exam Key Concepts 6 documents

The official Key Concept reviews for every exam — Exams 1–5 plus the Final — embedded below in order. Click an exam to expand and read it inline, or use Open / Download. (Inline preview streams from your Drive, so stay signed into your Google account; Download always works.)
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📊 study sheets Master Study Guide 139 slides

The full deck is embedded below. All 13 modules of high-yield notes, plus every study sheets study sheet — including the new Renal (Module 9) set. Flip through it right here, or use the buttons to open it full-screen or download the PowerPoint.
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🏥 ATI Fundamentals — COMBINED Final Study Guide

NUR198 Final Exam · ATI Fundamentals content review + a big pooled NCLEX practice bank

Combines the ATI Fundamentals review, the Deep-Dive study guide, the Interactive Quiz, and questions worked through in the lecture recordings — all in one place. Tap a card to expand; on questions, pick your answer then hit Check and read the rationale even when you're right.

🧭 Professional Role, Legal & Ethical (Ch 3–9)
Ethics & Client Rights ★ High-yield

Core ethical principles

  • Autonomy: client's right to make their own decisions (even "bad" ones) — support informed refusal.
  • Beneficence: do good / act in the client's best interest.
  • Nonmaleficence: do no harm.
  • Justice: fair, equal treatment.
  • Fidelity: keep promises. Veracity: tell the truth.

Advocacy

  • Nurse = client advocate: protect rights, give info, support the client's choice even if you disagree.
⭐ Autonomy trumps the nurse's opinion. A competent adult can refuse care — your job is to make sure the refusal is informed, then document and notify the provider.
Legal Responsibilities ⚠ Safety

Key terms

  • Negligence: failure to act as a reasonably prudent nurse would.
  • Malpractice: professional negligence (duty → breach → harm → causation).
  • Assault: threat; Battery: unconsented touch.
  • False imprisonment: improper restraint/confinement.

Informed consent

  • Provider obtains consent (explains procedure/risks). Nurse witnesses the signature and confirms understanding.
  • Client must be competent, informed, and consenting voluntarily.

Mandatory reporting & incident reports

  • Nurses are mandatory reporters (suspected abuse/neglect — report the suspicion, no proof needed).
  • Incident/occurrence report is not part of the medical record; don't chart that one was filed.
⭐ If a client hasn't had their questions answered, STOP and notify the provider before the procedure — do not have them sign.
Delegation & Supervision (Ch 6) ★ High-yield

The 5 Rights of Delegation

  • Right task · right circumstance · right person · right direction/communication · right supervision.

Who can do what

  • AP/UAP: stable/predictable clients — ADLs, hygiene, feeding (no aspiration risk), vital signs, I&O, ambulating, bed-making.
  • LPN/LVN: stable clients — most meds (not IV push in many states), sterile dressing changes, tube feeds, reinforce teaching.
  • RN only: assessment, teaching, evaluation, care planning, unstable clients, blood, IV push, initial wound assessment.
⭐ Never delegate what you can't measure or that needs nursing judgment: assess, teach, evaluate, and the unstable client stay with the RN. UAP can collect data, not "assess."
Nursing Process & Clinical Judgment (Ch 7–8)

ADPIE

  • Assessment → Diagnosis → Planning (SMART, measurable goals) → Implementation → Evaluation.
  • Always assess before you act. Evaluation loops back if goals aren't met.

Prioritization frameworks

  • ABC (airway → breathing → circulation) first, then Maslow (physiologic → safety → psychosocial).
  • Acute/unstable and unexpected findings outrank chronic/expected ones.
⭐ "First/priority/best" question? Run ABC → Maslow → acute-over-chronic → actual-over-risk. When two clients seem equal, the one whose status is changing wins.
🦠 Infection Control & Safety (Ch 11–15)
Asepsis & Isolation Precautions ⚠ Safety

Chain of infection

  • Agent → reservoir → portal of exit → mode of transmission → portal of entry → susceptible host. Break any link (hand hygiene breaks the most).

Standard precautions

  • Used for ALL clients: hand hygiene, gloves for body fluids, PPE as needed. Hand hygiene is the #1 way to prevent infection.

Transmission-based precautions

  • Airborne (TB, measles/rubeola, varicella): private negative-pressure room, N95/respirator. "My Chicken Hez TB" = Measles, Chickenpox, Herpes zoster (disseminated), TB.
  • Droplet (influenza, pertussis, meningitis, mumps, rubella): private room, surgical mask within 3–6 ft.
  • Contact (C. diff, MRSA/VRE, RSV, scabies): gown + gloves; dedicated equipment. C. diff → soap and water (alcohol gel doesn't kill spores).

PPE order

  • Donning: gown → mask → goggles → gloves. Doffing: gloves → goggles → gown → mask (dirtiest first; leave the room, then remove mask).
⭐ Sterile field rules: 1-inch border is contaminated, keep everything above waist & in sight, moisture wicks contamination, never turn your back on it.
Client Safety: Falls, Restraints, Fire, Seizures ⚠ Safety

Fall prevention

  • Bed low & locked, call light in reach, nonslip footwear, clutter-free, adequate lighting, assess with a validated tool.

Restraints (last resort)

  • Need a provider order (renewed per policy); never PRN. Try least-restrictive alternatives first.
  • Quick-release tie to the bed frame (not the rail), 2 fingers should fit, check circulation/skin & release/reposition q2h.

Fire — RACE & PASS

  • RACE: Rescue → Alarm → Contain → Extinguish/Evacuate.
  • PASS: Pull pin → Aim at base → Squeeze → Sweep.

Seizure precautions

  • Pad rails, bed low, suction & O2 at bedside. During: protect head, turn to side, nothing in the mouth, don't restrain, time it.
⭐ In a fire, rescue clients first — even before pulling the alarm. Move the closest/most able out, then those who need the most help.
📊 Assessment & Vital Signs (Ch 26–31)
Vital Signs — Normals & Red Flags ★ High-yield

Adult normals

  • Temp: 36–38 °C (96.8–100.4 °F).
  • Pulse: 60–100 /min.
  • Respirations: 12–20 /min.
  • BP: <120/80 (normal); ≥130/80 = hypertension.
  • SpO₂: 95–100% (be cautious <90%; know client's baseline in COPD).

Orthostatic (postural) hypotension

  • Drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic (or HR ↑≥20) within 3 min of standing. Change positions slowly; dangle first.
⭐ Pain is the "5th vital sign," but it's subjective — the client's report is the most reliable indicator. Always compare to the client's own baseline.
🍎 Physiologic Needs (Ch 36–44)
Nutrition & Aspiration Precautions ⚠ Safety

Feeding safety

  • High-Fowler's to eat; stay upright 30–60 min after.
  • Dysphagia: chin-tuck, thickened liquids, small bites, no straws, no mixed textures.

Enteral (tube) feeding

  • Verify placement (pH ≤5 aspirate; x-ray is the gold standard for initial). HOB ≥30° during and after.
  • Check residuals per policy; flush with water before/after meds and feeds.

Therapeutic diets (quick hits)

  • Renal: ↓Na/K/phosphorus/protein · Heart-healthy: ↓Na/sat-fat · Low-residue: ↓fiber (flare/pre-op) · Clear→full→soft→regular progression.
⭐ Aspiration is the big enteral-feeding risk — HOB up, verify placement, hold the feed and reassess if the client vomits, coughs, or desats.
Mobility, Immobility & Body Mechanics (Ch 39/42)

Hazards of immobility (head-to-toe)

  • Resp: atelectasis, pneumonia → incentive spirometer, cough & deep breathe.
  • CV: DVT, orthostatic hypotension → SCDs, ROM, hydration.
  • Skin: pressure injury → reposition q2h. GI/GU: constipation, stasis calculi.
  • MSK: contractures, atrophy, disuse osteoporosis → ROM, early mobility.

Body mechanics & assistive devices

  • Lift with legs, wide base, hold load close, no twisting; use mechanical lifts/help.
  • Cane: hold on the strong side, advance with the weak leg. Crutches (up): "up with the good"; (down) "down with the bad." Walker: all 4 legs down before stepping.
⭐ "COAL" for canes — Cane Opposite Affected Leg. For stairs: good leg leads going up, bad leg leads going down.
Skin Integrity & Pressure Injury Staging (Ch 44) ★ High-yield

Pressure injury stages

  • Stage 1: intact skin, non-blanchable erythema.
  • Stage 2: partial-thickness, shallow open/blister (pink-red, moist).
  • Stage 3: full-thickness, fat visible, may have slough (not bone/muscle).
  • Stage 4: full-thickness with exposed bone/tendon/muscle.
  • Unstageable: base covered by slough/eschar (can't see depth).
  • Deep tissue injury: intact, non-blanchable deep red/maroon/purple.

Prevention & the Braden Scale

  • Braden: lower score = higher risk (sensory, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear). Reposition q2h, float heels, keep dry, protein/nutrition.
⭐ If you can't see the wound base (eschar/slough), it's unstageable — you can't stage depth you can't visualize. Stable dry eschar on a heel is usually left intact.
Oxygenation & Airway (Ch 53)

O₂ delivery devices (low → high)

  • Nasal cannula: 1–6 L/min ≈ 24–44%. Humidify >4 L; skin care behind ears.
  • Simple mask: 5–10 L ≈ 40–60% (min 5 L to flush CO₂).
  • Non-rebreather: 10–15 L ≈ 60–100% (keep reservoir bag inflated) — highest for a spontaneously breathing client.
  • Venturi: most precise FiO₂ — good for COPD.

Safety & interventions

  • O₂ is a drug & fire hazard: no smoking, "O₂ in use" sign. COPD: titrate to their baseline SpO₂ (often 88–92%).
  • Incentive spirometer: slow deep breath, hold 3–5 sec — prevents atelectasis post-op.
  • Suction: only on withdrawal, ≤10–15 sec, hyperoxygenate first.
⭐ Lowest amount of O₂ that keeps the client safe. Don't withhold O₂ from a hypoxic COPD client — but titrate carefully and watch the respiratory drive.
Elimination: Urinary & Bowel (Ch 45–46)

Urinary catheters

  • Sterile insertion; keep bag below bladder, off the floor, no dependent loops. CAUTI prevention: remove ASAP, secure tubing, perineal care.

Bowel & enemas

  • Left side-lying (Sims') for enema; hold as tolerated. Stop & assess for cramping/bleeding.
  • Normal urine output ≥30 mL/hr (adult) — a key perfusion indicator.

Ostomy basics

  • Stoma should be pink/red & moist (pale = poor perfusion, dark/dusky = ischemia → report). Empty pouch at 1/3 full; protect peristomal skin.
⭐ Urine output <30 mL/hr is an early red flag for hypovolemia/poor kidney perfusion — assess and report.
Pain, Rest & Comfort (Ch 38/41)

Pain

  • Pain is whatever the client says it is — believe the self-report. Reassess after intervention (~30 min IV, ~60 min PO).
  • Multimodal: non-pharm (heat/cold, repositioning, distraction, relaxation) + meds. PCA: only the client presses the button — never family ("PCA by proxy" is unsafe).

Opioid safety

  • Watch for respiratory depression & sedation; naloxone reverses. Prevent constipation proactively (fluids, fiber, stimulant laxative).
⭐ Sedation precedes respiratory depression — a rising sedation score is your early warning. Assess RR & sedation before the next opioid dose.
💊 Medication Administration (Ch 47)
Rights, Routes & Injection Angles ⚠ Safety

Rights of med administration

  • Right client (2 identifiers), drug, dose, route, time, documentation, reason, response. Three checks: pulling, preparing, at bedside.

Injection angles & sites

  • Intradermal: 5–15°, bleb (TB/allergy). Subcut: 45–90°, ≤1 mL (insulin/heparin — don't aspirate/massage).
  • IM: 90°; ventrogluteal is preferred/safest; deltoid ≤1 mL. Z-track for irritating meds.

Safety habits

  • Never leave meds at the bedside; don't recap needles; question unclear/unsafe orders (e.g., IV push KCl — never).
  • High-alert meds (insulin, heparin, opioids, K⁺) → independent double-check.
⭐ If a dose looks off or an order is unsafe, hold and clarify — "the provider ordered it" is never a defense. You are the last safety check.
💬 Psychosocial & End-of-Life (Ch 32–35)
Therapeutic Communication & Grief

Therapeutic techniques

  • Open-ended questions, silence, reflecting, clarifying, offering self, active listening. Focus on feelings.
  • Avoid: "why" questions, false reassurance ("everything will be fine"), giving advice, changing the subject, closed yes/no when exploring.

Culturally & end-of-life aware care

  • Ask, don't assume; use professional interpreters (not family). Support the client's values & rituals.
  • Kübler-Ross stages (not linear): denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. Meet the client where they are.
⭐ The best therapeutic response usually names the client's feeling and invites them to say more — e.g., "You seem worried about going home. Tell me more about that."
🧪 Deep Dive: Lab Values & Fluid/Electrolyte Balance
High-Yield Lab Values & Normal Ranges + Deep Dive ★ High-yield

Hematology

  • WBC 5,000–10,000/mm³ (high = infection/inflammation; low = immunosuppression → neutropenic precautions).
  • Hgb: male 14–18, female 12–16 g/dL. Hct: male 42–52%, female 37–47% (≈3× the Hgb; high = dehydration).
  • Platelets 150,000–400,000/mm³ — <50k = bleeding risk; <20k = spontaneous bleed → bleeding precautions.

Electrolytes

  • Na⁺ 136–145 · K⁺ 3.5–5.0 · Ca²⁺ 9–10.5 mg/dL · Mg²⁺ 1.3–2.1 · Cl⁻ 98–106 · Phosphorus 3.0–4.5 · HCO₃⁻ 22–26.
  • Pairs: K⁺ & Mg²⁺ track together; Ca²⁺ & phosphorus are inverse.

Renal / metabolic

  • BUN 10–20 (↑ dehydration, kidney injury, high protein, GI bleed). Creatinine 0.6–1.2 = best kidney marker (diet/hydration don't sway it like BUN).
  • Fasting glucose 70–110 · Albumin 3.5–5.0 (low → poor wound healing, edema) · Total bilirubin 0.1–1.0.

ABGs & coagulation

  • pH 7.35–7.45 · PaCO₂ 35–45 · PaO₂ 80–100 (<80 = hypoxemia) · HCO₃⁻ 22–26 · SaO₂ 95–100%.
  • PT 11–12.5 / INR — warfarin therapeutic INR = 2–3. aPTT 30–40 (heparin) — therapeutic = 1.5–2× control (≈46–70 sec).
⭐ Creatinine is the truest kidney marker; a rising creatinine is more reliable than BUN, which climbs with dehydration and high protein even when kidneys are fine.
Electrolyte Imbalances — Signs & Treatment + Deep Dive

Potassium (K⁺)

Hypokalemia <3.5Hyperkalemia >5.0
Weakness, ↓DTR, flat T-waves, U-waves, cramps, ileus, dysrhythmiasWeakness, peaked T-waves, wide QRS, diarrhea/cramping, dysrhythmias → arrest
Causes: diuretics, vomiting, diarrheaCauses: renal failure, K-sparing diuretics, crush injury
Tx: oral/IV K (DILUTE, ≤10–20 mEq/hr, never push)Tx: Kayexalate, IV insulin+glucose, Ca gluconate, dialysis

Magnesium (Mg²⁺)

HypomagnesemiaHypermagnesemia
↑ excitability: +Trousseau/Chvostek, torsades; often with low K/low Ca↓ everything: ↓DTR, ↓BP, ↓RR, lethargy (renal failure, Mg antacids/laxatives)
Tx: IV magnesium sulfateTx: stop Mg, IV calcium gluconate, dialysis
  • Loss of DTRs on a Mg drip = toxicity. Low Mg or low K won't correct until the other is corrected.
  • Low-calcium signs: Chvostek = Cheek twitch when tapped; Trousseau = Tourniquet/BP-cuff causes hand spasm.
⭐ Peaked T-waves = hyperkalemia; flat T-waves + U-waves = hypokalemia; prolonged QT = hypocalcemia. Know the ECG-electrolyte trio.
Fluids, Tonicity & IV Complications + Deep Dive ⚠ Safety

IV fluid tonicity

TypeExamplesAction
Isotonic0.9% NaCl, LR, D5W*Stays in vessels — volume replacement/resuscitation
Hypotonic0.45% NaCl, 0.225% NaClMoves INTO cells (rehydrates cells)
Hypertonic3% NaCl, D10W, D5½NSPulls fluid OUT of cells into vessels

*D5W is isotonic in the bag but acts hypotonic once dextrose is metabolized (free water → cells → risk of cerebral edema). Fluid bolus needs an 18-gauge or larger catheter.

FVD vs FVE

Fluid Volume DeficitFluid Volume Excess
↑HR, ↓BP, orthostatic, weak thready pulse, dry membranes, poor turgor, ↓urine↑BP, bounding pulse, JVD, crackles, edema, dyspnea, ↑urine
↑Hct, ↑BUN, ↑urine specific gravity, weight LOSS↓Hct (dilution), ↓specific gravity, weight GAIN (1 kg ≈ 1 L)
  • Daily weight = best indicator of fluid status. Report >2 lb/day or >5 lb/week. Same scale, time, clothing.
  • Infiltration: cool, swollen, pale, ↓flow → stop, remove, elevate, compress. Phlebitis: red, warm, tender, cordlike vein → stop, remove, warm compress.
  • Air embolism: place LEFT lateral, head DOWN (left Trendelenburg) to trap air in the right ventricle; give O₂, notify provider.
  • Blood transfusion: two-nurse verify, consent, 18-g catheter, prime with NS ONLY (D5W/LR hemolyze RBCs), start slow & stay 15 min. Reaction → STOP, keep vein open with NS, notify.
⭐ Ice chips count as HALF their volume for I&O. A hemolytic transfusion reaction (back pain, chills, dark urine, hypotension) means STOP the blood — never just slow it.
🧭 Deep Dive: Leadership, Legal Systems & Clinical Judgment
Legal / Regulatory Deeper Cuts + Deep Dive
  • Assault = the THREAT (no touch); Battery = the actual TOUCH. ("A" threat comes before the act.)
  • AMA: explain risks + offer the form to sign, but you canNOT force a competent client to stay — that would be false imprisonment.
  • Federal laws: HIPAA (privacy) · ADA (disability) · EMTALA (emergency treatment regardless of ability to pay).
  • Who regulates what: State boards of nursing license & oversee nurses; Joint Commission accredits facilities; FDA approves drugs.
  • Medicare: A = hospitAl (inpatient/SNF/hospice) · B = doctor Bills (outpatient) · C = Combo/Advantage · D = Drugs. Medicare = 65+/disability; Medicaid = low income (state-run).
  • Documentation (FACT): Factual, Accurate, Complete, Timely. Chart objectively; never pre-chart; error → single line + initials (never erase/white-out/blacken).
⭐ HIPAA trap: sharing a client's info (especially HIV status) with family without the client's written consent is a HIPAA violation — even if the family "means well."
Interdisciplinary Referrals (very testable) + Deep Dive
Team memberRefer when…
Registered DietitianLow albumin, unexplained weight loss, special/therapeutic diet
Occupational Therapist (OT)ADLs, fine-motor, upper-extremity tasks (eating utensils, dressing)
Physical Therapist (PT)Mobility, strength, lower-extremity, gait, post-hip ambulation
Speech-Language Pathologist (SLP)Swallowing (dysphagia) + speech after stroke
Social WorkerCommunity resources, discharge planning, financial needs
⭐ Exam trap: swallowing trouble → SLP (not OT). Utensil/fine-motor trouble → OT. After a stroke both can be needed.
Clinical Judgment, Frameworks & Safety Extras + Deep Dive

Frameworks

  • NCSBN Clinical Judgment (NCJMM): Recognize cues → Analyze cues → Prioritize hypotheses → Generate solutions → Take action → Evaluate outcomes. (Maps to ADPIE: Recognize=Assess, Analyze/Prioritize=Analysis, Generate=Planning, Take action=Implementation, Evaluate=Evaluation.)
  • ISBAR hand-off: Introduction · Situation · Background · Assessment · Recommendation.
  • Goals must be measurable + time-bound ("ambulate 50 ft by day 2," not "feel better").

Safety beyond RACE/PASS

  • Extinguisher classes: A = Ash (paper/wood) · B = Barrel (liquids/grease) · C = Circuits (electrical); hospitals mostly ABC.
  • Disaster triage flips ED logic: unsalvageable get a BLACK tag so resources go to the salvageable (opposite of "most critical first" in the ED).
  • Body mechanics: bend knees/hips, back straight, wide base; #1 injury setup = twisting while lifting → pivot the whole body.
⭐ Conflict styles: Avoidance (manager ignores it / "does not intervene") is lose-lose and the classic wrong move. Collaboration is win-win.
👶 Deep Dive: Growth, Development & Advanced Assessment
Growth & Development (Erikson, milestones) + Deep Dive

Erikson's stages

  • Infant = Trust vs Mistrust · Toddler = Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt · Preschool = Initiative vs Guilt · School-age = Industry vs Inferiority · Adolescent = Identity vs Role Confusion · Young adult = Intimacy vs Isolation · Middle adult = Generativity vs Stagnation · Older adult = Ego Integrity vs Despair.

Infant milestones & play

  • Play: solitary (infant) → parallel (toddler) → associative/cooperative (preschool).
  • Weight DOUBLES by 6 mo, TRIPLES by 12 mo. Posterior fontanel closes 6–8 wks, anterior 12–18 mo.
  • Motor: 2 mo lifts head · 4 mo rolls front→back, no head lag · 6 mo sits with support · 8–9 mo sits unsupported/crawls · 12 mo pulls to stand, first steps, pincer grasp.

Expected aging vs NOT normal

  • Expected: thinner/drier skin, ↓turgor, presbyopia, presbycusis (high-pitch loss), ↓taste/smell, ↓bladder capacity.
  • NOT normal (investigate): confusion, increased salivation, skin thickening.
⭐ New confusion is NEVER "just aging." In an older adult, sudden confusion + incontinence = suspect a UTI/infection until proven otherwise.
Advanced Physical Assessment + Deep Dive

Exam order

  • Standard: Inspect → Palpate → Percuss → Auscultate. Abdomen EXCEPTION: Inspect → Auscultate → Percuss → Palpate (palpating first alters bowel sounds); palpate tender areas LAST.

Heart, nerves, ears, neuro

  • Auscultation "APE To Man": Aortic (2nd R), Pulmonic (2nd L), Erb's (3rd L), Tricuspid (4th L), Mitral/apex (5th L midclavicular).
  • CN II = vision · III/IV/VI = eye movement · VII = facial movement + taste. Weber normal = equal both ears; Rinne normal = air > bone conduction.
  • GCS = Eyes(4)+Verbal(5)+Motor(6) = 3–15; <8 = intubate. Unilateral blown/fixed pupil + ↓LOC = ↑ICP/herniation = emergency.

Adventitious lung sounds

SoundMeans
Crackles (rales)Fluid in alveoli (HF, pneumonia)
WheezesNarrowed airways (asthma, COPD)
RhonchiSecretions in large airways (may clear with cough)
StridorUpper-airway obstruction — EMERGENCY
Pleural friction rubInflamed pleura (grating)
⭐ Levels of prevention: Primary = prevent (immunize/lifestyle) · Secondary = screen/detect early (BP screening, mammogram) · Tertiary = manage disease to limit complications (cardiac rehab, post-stroke PT).
🧠 Deep Dive: Psychosocial, Pharmacology & Comfort
Psychosocial: Defense Mechanisms, Stress & Loss + Deep Dive

Defense mechanisms

  • Denial ("I don't have a problem") · Projection (blaming others for own feelings) · Rationalization (justifying with excuses) · Regression (adult reverting to childlike) · Displacement (yelling at the nurse instead of the boss) · Compensation (excelling in one area to offset another).

Stress & loss

  • General Adaptation Syndrome: Alarm (fight-or-flight) → Resistance (adapts) → Exhaustion (depleted).
  • Types of loss: Anticipatory (before) · Maturational (expected with development) · Situational (sudden/unexpected) · Complicated (prolonged, disabling → needs intervention).
  • Culture/communication: always use professional interpreters — never family (especially children).
⭐ "I know how you feel — I lost my dad too" is inappropriate self-disclosure that shifts focus to the nurse. Reflecting the client's feeling and asking them to say more stays therapeutic.
Pharmacology Deeper (PK, routes, errors, dosing) + Deep Dive ⚠ Safety

Pharmacokinetics

  • First-pass effect: oral drugs hit the liver first → less reaches the blood. Half-life = time for 50% to clear (guides dosing frequency).
  • Absorption speed: IV (immediate/complete, no take-backs) > IM/SubQ (fast if soluble + perfused) > Oral (slow/variable) > Topical/transdermal (slow, sustained).

Reactions & safety

  • Side effect (predictable/tolerable) · Adverse (harmful/unintended) · Toxicity (level too high) · Allergic/idiosyncratic.
  • High-alert meds (independent double-check): insulin, heparin, opioids, K⁺.
  • Med error: ASSESS the client FIRST → notify provider → complete incident report (never chart that a report was filed).

Dosing rules

  • Desired ÷ Have × Quantity. Leading zero YES (0.5 mg); trailing zero NO (5 mg, not 5.0) — trailing zeros cause 10× overdoses.
⭐ After any med error the FIRST action is always to assess the client — paperwork (incident report) never comes before patient safety.
Immunity, Endocrine Basics & Pain Deeper + Deep Dive

Immunity & infection

  • Active = body MAKES antibodies, slow/long-lasting (vaccine, having the illness). Passive = antibodies GIVEN, immediate/temporary (maternal, immunoglobulin).
  • Infection stages: Incubation → Prodromal (vague early sx) → Illness (full sx) → Convalescence (recovery).

Glucose & pain

  • Hypoglycemia Rule of 15: treat <70 with 15 g fast carb → wait 15 min → recheck; repeat if still low, then a complex carb + protein snack.
  • WHO analgesic ladder: Step 1 non-opioid (acetaminophen/NSAID) → Step 2 weak opioid → Step 3 strong opioid; add adjuvants at any step.
  • Acute vs chronic pain: acute = protective, <6 mo, ↑HR/↑BP/diaphoresis/grimacing; chronic = >6 mo, often NORMAL vitals + fatigue/depression.

Wound healing phases

  • Inflammatory (1–6 d, clot + cleanup) → Proliferative (3–24 d, granulation) → Maturation/Remodeling (day 21+, up to 1 yr).
⭐ Opioid #1 danger = respiratory depression; assess RR first and remember sedation precedes respiratory depression — a rising sedation level is the early warning to hold the dose.
Big pooled NCLEX practice bank. 204 questions combined from four sources: the original ATI Fundamentals set (1–20), the ATI Interactive Quiz (21–104), and questions worked through in the exam-prep lecture recordings (105–204). Mix of multiple choice, SATA, matching, and dropdown items. Pick your answer(s) → Check → read the rationale.
Questions 1–20 · original ATI Fundamentals set
Delegation

1. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?

b. AP handle ADLs and ambulation for stable clients. Teaching, initial assessment, and evaluation require nursing judgment — RN only.
Ethics

2. A competent client refuses a scheduled blood transfusion for religious reasons. The nurse's best action is to:

c. Autonomy: a competent adult may refuse care. The nurse ensures the refusal is informed, notifies the provider, and documents. Giving it anyway = battery.
Priority

3. Using the nursing process, which action does the nurse take FIRST for a newly admitted client?

b. ADPIE starts with Assessment — you can't plan, implement, or evaluate without data. Assess before acting.
SATA

4. A client is on contact precautions for C. difficile. Which actions are correct? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d. C. diff = contact precautions: gown/gloves, dedicated equipment, and soap & water (alcohol gel doesn't kill spores). Negative pressure is for airborne, not contact.
Order

5. When removing PPE after client care, which item does the nurse remove FIRST?

c. Doffing order removes the dirtiest first: gloves → goggles → gown → mask (mask comes off last, after leaving the room).
Priority

6. A fire starts in a client's trash can. Applying RACE, the nurse's FIRST action is to:

b. RACE = Rescue first, then Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate. People before property.
SATA

7. Which clients require airborne precautions? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d. "My Chicken Hez TB" = Measles, Chickenpox/varicella, Herpes zoster (disseminated), TB → airborne + N95 + negative pressure. Influenza & pertussis are droplet.
Priority

8. A client on a continuous tube feeding suddenly coughs and their SpO₂ drops to 86%. The nurse's FIRST action is to:

b. Signs of aspiration → stop the feed immediately and sit the client up to protect the airway, then suction/assess and notify the provider.
Multiple choice

9. A client uses a cane for left-leg weakness. The nurse knows teaching is effective when the client holds the cane:

b. COAL — Cane Opposite Affected Leg. Hold in the strong (right) hand and advance the cane with the weak (left) leg together.
Multiple choice

10. A pressure area on the sacrum has a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink moist wound bed and no slough. This is a:

b. Partial-thickness, shallow, pink-red moist bed with no slough = Stage 2. Stage 1 is intact skin; slough/eschar covering = unstageable.
SATA

11. Which interventions help prevent complications of immobility? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e. Prevent pressure injury (turn q2h), DVT (SCDs, ROM), and atelectasis (IS). Prolonged bed rest causes the complications — mobilize early.
Multiple choice

12. Which client is the priority for the nurse to see FIRST?

a. Output <30 mL/hr signals poor kidney perfusion/hypovolemia — an acute, changing physiologic problem. The others are stable/routine.
Multiple choice

13. A postoperative client's ostomy stoma appears dusky and dark purple. The nurse should:

c. A healthy stoma is pink/red and moist. Dark/dusky/purple = impaired perfusion (ischemia) — report promptly.
Dropdown / Cloze

14. Complete the injection technique statements by choosing the best option:

For a subcutaneous heparin injection, insert the needle at and . The preferred, safest site for an IM injection in an adult is the site.
45–90°; do not aspirate or massage; ventrogluteal. Heparin subcut is given at 45–90° with no aspiration/massage (↓bruising/hematoma). Ventrogluteal is the preferred IM site (away from major nerves/vessels); deltoid holds ≤1 mL.
Multiple choice

15. A provider order reads "potassium chloride 20 mEq IV push now." The nurse should:

b. IV potassium is never given by push (fatal dysrhythmia) — always diluted on a pump. Question the unsafe order; "it was ordered" is not a defense.
SATA

16. Which are correct steps in the "rights" of safe medication administration? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Two identifiers, three checks, and chart after (not before) giving. Never leave meds unattended or recap needles.
Therapeutic communication

17. A client scheduled for surgery says, "I'm not sure I should go through with this." The best response is:

c. Names the feeling and invites the client to elaborate. "Why" questions sound accusatory, and false reassurance shuts down communication.
Matching

18. Match each ethical principle to its definition:

Autonomy
Nonmaleficence
Veracity
Justice
Autonomy = self-determination; Nonmaleficence = do no harm; Veracity = tell the truth; Justice = fairness. (Beneficence = do good; Fidelity = keep promises.)
Multiple choice

19. A client stands up and reports dizziness; the nurse suspects orthostatic hypotension. This is confirmed by a systolic BP drop of at least:

c. Orthostatic hypotension = systolic drop ≥20 mmHg (or diastolic ≥10) within 3 minutes of standing. Teach the client to change positions slowly and dangle first.
Priority

20. A client receiving morphine via PCA has a rising sedation score. The nurse's priority is to:

b. Sedation precedes opioid-induced respiratory depression — assess RR and sedation first. Only the client presses a PCA button; never dose by proxy.
Questions 21–104 · ATI Fundamentals Interactive Quiz
Multiple choice

21. A nurse is developing a presentation about the Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM). Which step of the nursing process correlates with "analyze cues and prioritize hypotheses"?

b. Recognize Cues = Assessment. Analyze Cues + Prioritize Hypotheses = ANALYSIS. Generate Solutions = Planning. Take Action = Implementation. Evaluate Outcomes = Evaluation.
Delegation

22. A nurse on a med-surg unit is making assignments. Which task should be delegated to the LPN/PN?

a. Vital signs for a stable post-cath client = routine monitoring = appropriate for the PN. Blood transfusions require an RN, and teaching and care planning cannot be delegated.
SATA

23. Which should be included in an orientation plan for newly licensed nurses? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e, f. Orientation = skills, preceptor, technology/charting, culture, and policies. Budgetary principles are a manager function, not new-nurse orientation.
Multiple choice

24. A nurse manager does not intervene when conflict between team members escalates. Which conflict strategy is being used?

a. Avoidance = no action taken even as conflict escalates ("does not intervene"). It is lose-lose. Smoothing = temporary peace; negotiating/compromising = both give something.
SATA

25. Which are part of the 5 rights of delegation? (Select all that apply)

b, c, e. The 5 rights: right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, right supervision/evaluation. "Place" and "documentation" are not among them.
Multiple choice

26. After completing assessment of a newly admitted client, which action should the nurse take next?

a. After assessment, orient the client — this reduces anxiety, establishes rapport, and improves safety. Care planning and reviewing prescriptions follow.
Priority

27. A post-op client is not getting pain relief. What should the nurse do FIRST?

b. Assessment always comes before intervention. Reassess the pain first — the location may have changed (a new problem) or the client may need repositioning before medication.
SATA

28. Which actions decrease the risk of another fall for an oriented client in a nursing home? (Select all that apply)

c, d, e. Call light in reach, nonskid footwear, and a fall-risk assessment are appropriate. A restraint is inappropriate for an oriented client, and all four side rails up is itself a fall risk (climbing over).
Priority

29. A client has a history of falls. Which is the nurse's PRIORITY action?

a. Assessment first. The fall-risk assessment identifies the specific risk factors that direct every other intervention.
Multiple choice

30. Which statement by a nurse about seizure care requires further instruction?

b. Never leave a seizing client. Stay and call for help using the call light. Side-lying, timing the seizure, and preparing an airway (for after) are all correct.
Priority

31. A nurse observes smoke coming from under the staff lounge door. Which is the PRIORITY action?

c. RACE: Rescue first — move clients in immediate danger. Then Alarm, Contain (close doors), and Extinguish last (only if safe).
SATA

32. Which nursing responsibilities apply when caring for a client in restraints? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e, f. All are correct except tying to the side rails — tie to the bed FRAME (the part that moves with the controls). PRN restraint orders are never acceptable; ROM q2h prevents circulatory compromise.
Multiple choice

33. A nurse is teaching home safety to a family with a 6-month-old infant. Which statement indicates understanding?

b. Rear-facing until age 2 is current guidance. Back-to-sleep (not stomach) prevents SIDS; crib bumpers are a suffocation risk; solid foods at 6 mo of this type are a choking risk.
SATA

34. Which instructions should be included when teaching assistive personnel about handwashing? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d. Correct soap amount on dry hands, 15 seconds minimum, and a paper towel to turn off the faucet. Use WARM water (hot damages skin), and dry with a paper towel (not air dry) before turning off the faucet.
Multiple choice

35. On entering a room to change a surgical dressing, the nurse notes the client is coughing and sneezing. Which action should the nurse take?

c. A mask on the client prevents respiratory droplets from contaminating the sterile field and open wound. You cannot reliably stop someone from coughing, and tissues don't protect the field.
SATA

36. Which events contaminate a sterile field prepared for chest tube insertion? (Select all that apply)

c, d, e. Prolonged air exposure, turning your back (loss of visual control), and touching the 1-inch border all contaminate the field. Dropping onto the center (not the border) stays sterile; adding sterile saline is acceptable.
SATA

37. A nurse wearing sterile gloves may touch which objects without breaching sterile technique? (Select all that apply)

c, d, e. The inner wrapping, an item on the field, and sterile-to-sterile contact are all sterile. The solution bottle's outside is not sterile (only what is poured out), and the border/edge is always contaminated.
Multiple choice

38. A nurse opens a sterile pack. Which flap should be unfolded first?

d. Open the farthest flap first (away from the body) to avoid reaching over the sterile field, then the sides, then the closest flap toward you last.
SATA

39. A nurse is planning care for a client with suspected pertussis. Which interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

b, c, e. Pertussis = droplet precautions: mask within 3 ft, mask on the client during transport, gown if secretion exposure is likely. Negative pressure is for airborne only; clean (not sterile) gloves suffice for linens.
Multiple choice

40. A nurse is sorting diseases by isolation type. Which assignment is correct?

d. Varicella (chickenpox) = airborne (N95 + negative pressure), as is TB. MRSA = contact; influenza = droplet.
Multiple choice

41. A nurse is caring for a client with C. difficile. Which hand hygiene method is required?

b. C. difficile requires soap and water — alcohol-based gel does not kill the spores. C. diff also requires contact precautions (gown + gloves).
SATA

42. A client has hypovolemia due to vomiting and diarrhea. Which findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)

a, c, e. Hypothermia (vasoconstriction), orthostatic hypotension, and decreased turgor are classic hypovolemia signs. Expect TACHYcardia (compensatory) and FLAT neck veins (distended = hypervolemia).
SATA

43. Which findings indicate hypovolemia? (Select all that apply)

a, d. Increased Hct (hemoconcentration) and decreased urine output (<30 mL/hr, kidneys conserving). BP is decreased and specific gravity is INCREASED (>1.030) in hypovolemia.
Multiple choice

44. Which ECG finding does the nurse anticipate in a client with hyperkalemia (K+ = 5.8)?

b. Hyperkalemia = peaked (tall, tent-shaped) T-waves and risk of fatal arrhythmia. Flat T-waves + U-waves = hypokalemia; prolonged QT = hypocalcemia.
Multiple choice

45. The nurse is assessing a client for Chvostek's sign. Which action should the nurse take?

d. Chvostek's sign = tap the facial nerve at the cheek to elicit a facial twitch (hypocalcemia). Trousseau's sign uses the BP cuff; chin-to-chest is Brudzinski's (meningitis).
SATA

46. Which findings are risk factors for hypocalcemia? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c. Bariatric surgery (malabsorption), diarrhea (GI losses), and thyroid/parathyroid surgery (parathyroid damage) all lower calcium. Diabetes and hyperlipidemia do not primarily cause hypocalcemia.
Multiple choice

47. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium to a client with hypokalemia. Which route is contraindicated?

c. Never IV push potassium — it causes fatal cardiac arrhythmia. Potassium must be diluted and infused on a pump, or given orally.
SATA

48. A nurse is teaching an AP how to count respirations. Which instructions should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c. Semi-Fowler's, arm across the abdomen, and observing first are correct. Count a FULL 60 seconds if irregular, and do NOT tell the client (they'll change their pattern).
Priority

49. A client has a blood pressure of 140/94. What should the nurse do first?

b. Pain is the most common cause of an elevated BP in hospitalized clients. Assess the cause before treating — managing the pain may normalize the BP.
Multiple choice

50. A client has an apical heart rate of 84 bpm and a radial rate of 68 bpm. What is the pulse deficit?

c. Pulse deficit = apical − radial = 84 − 68 = 16 bpm. It indicates some cardiac contractions aren't strong enough to produce a palpable radial pulse.
SATA

51. A client has a fever of 38.6°C. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

a, c, e. Cultures before antibiotics, rest (lowers metabolic demand), and oral hygiene. INCREASE fluids (don't restrict) and PREVENT shivering (it raises heat production).
Multiple choice

52. The nurse reviews a prescription for docusate 100 mg PO once daily. Which type of prescription is this?

c. Routine = scheduled on an ongoing basis until discontinued. Single = one time; stat = immediately; now = within 90 minutes.
Priority

53. The nurse administers the wrong medication. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

d. Always assess the client first — check vital signs to determine if harm is occurring. Then notify the provider and complete the incident report. Client safety before paperwork.
SATA

54. A nurse is caring for a client with evisceration. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

a, d. Cover exposed viscera with a sterile saline dressing (keeps organs moist) and position supine with knees bent (reduces tension). No binders, no pressure, keep NPO (surgical emergency), and never push organs back in.
Multiple choice

55. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which description is accurate?

c. Stage 3 = full-thickness loss with visible fat but NO exposed bone/tendon/muscle. Stage 1 = intact/redness; Stage 2 = partial/blister; Stage 4 = bone/tendon/muscle exposed.
Priority

56. A client returns from PACU after abdominal surgery. SpO2 is 91% on 2 L O2. Which action is priority?

b. Position first — semi-Fowler's improves lung expansion and is first-line for a low post-op SpO2. Encourage deep breathing/coughing, then reassess before escalating.
SATA

57. Which are adverse effects of opioid analgesics? (Select all that apply)

c, d, e. Respiratory depression (most serious), orthostatic hypotension, and nausea. Opioids cause urinary RETENTION (not incontinence) and CONSTIPATION (not diarrhea).
Priority

58. A client receiving morphine via PCA has a respiratory rate of 7/min and is difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse take first?

a. RR <8 + difficult to arouse = opioid-induced respiratory depression. Stop the opioid, give naloxone, stimulate, and support breathing. Sedation precedes respiratory depression.
Multiple choice

59. A nurse notes thick, opaque, yellow-green, foul-smelling drainage from a surgical wound. How should the nurse interpret this?

d. Thick, opaque, yellow/green, foul-smelling = purulent = infection; report and culture. Serous = clear/straw; sanguineous = bright red; serosanguineous = pink, blood-tinged (normal post-op).
Multiple choice

60. A client's BMI is 27. How does the nurse classify this finding?

c. BMI 25–29.9 = overweight. <18.5 underweight; 18.5–24.9 normal; ≥30 obese.
Multiple choice

61. Which lab finding indicates a catabolic state in a client with poor nutritional intake?

b. Negative nitrogen balance means protein breakdown exceeds synthesis — a catabolic/malnourished state. It is a more specific marker than a borderline albumin or prealbumin.
Multiple choice

62. A client who had a partial gastrectomy reports dizziness, diarrhea, and tachycardia 20 minutes after eating. The nurse recognizes this as:

c. Early dumping syndrome occurs 15–30 min after eating from rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts. Teach small meals, no liquids with meals, and lying down after eating.
SATA

63. A client with celiac disease asks what foods are safe. Which responses are correct? (Select all that apply)

b, d. Rice and corn are gluten-free. Graham crackers and pasta (wheat) and barley all contain gluten. Strict lifelong avoidance is required.
Multiple choice

64. A client is having a fecal occult blood test. Which instruction should the nurse include?

c. Avoid urine contamination. Collect 3 samples from 3 separate stools; blue = POSITIVE for blood; avoid red meat for several days before testing.
Multiple choice

65. During a large-volume enema, the client reports cramping. What should the nurse do?

b. Lower the bag to slow/stop the flow, reducing pressure and cramping. Raising it worsens cramping; removing the tube is premature.
Priority

66. A client reports no bowel movement in 4 days with cramping and fullness; they normally have a daily BM. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

b. Assessment first — auscultate/palpate the abdomen and review baseline pattern and contributors (fluid, fiber, immobility, opioids). Enemas/stimulants are a last resort, not first-line.
SATA

67. A nurse is teaching about preventing constipation. Which interventions should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Gradual fiber, activity (stimulates peristalsis), and responding to the urge. INCREASE fluids (2–3 L/day) and reserve stimulant laxatives as last-line (daily use causes dependence).
Multiple choice

68. After completing the admission assessment of a client, which action should the nurse take next?

a. Orient the client after assessment — reduces anxiety, builds rapport, and promotes safety. Planning and prescriptions follow.
Priority

69. A client's SpO2 drops to 89% while resting in bed. Which is the nurse's priority intervention?

c. Position first — elevating the HOB immediately improves lung expansion and oxygenation. Encourage deep breathing, then reassess before escalating O2 or calling the provider.
Multiple choice

70. Which oxygen delivery device provides the most precise oxygen concentration?

c. The Venturi mask delivers the most precise FiO2 — ideal for COPD clients who need controlled oxygen. The non-rebreather delivers the highest concentration but is least precise.
Priority

71. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which is the first action the nurse should take?

a. Safety first — implement airborne precautions (N95 + negative-pressure room) to protect staff and other clients before any other step.
SATA

72. An elderly client is admitted with acute confusion and urinary incontinence and no fever. Which nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

b, c, d, e. Acute confusion + incontinence in an older adult = UTI until proven otherwise, even without fever. Never attribute new confusion to dementia without investigating.
Multiple choice

73. A client with herpes zoster has a unilateral vesicular rash following a dermatome. Which statement about transmission is accurate?

b. Localized zoster spreads by direct contact with vesicle fluid; the client is contagious until all lesions crust over. (Disseminated zoster requires airborne + contact precautions.)
Multiple choice

74. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD. What is the target SpO2 range?

b. Target ~88–92% for COPD — too much O2 can suppress the hypoxic drive. Use a Venturi mask for precise delivery, but never withhold O2 from a hypoxic client.
Multiple choice

75. A client receiving IV D5W develops confusion and cerebral edema. Which characteristic of this solution explains this?

b. D5W is isotonic in the bag, but once glucose is metabolized the remaining free water acts hypotonic — water shifts into cells, causing swelling including cerebral edema.
SATA

76. A peripheral IV site is cool, pale, and swollen with no blood return. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e. These are signs of infiltration. Stop the infusion, apply a warm compress (aids absorption), remove the IV, and restart elsewhere. Never keep infusing into an infiltrated site.
Priority

77. Fifteen minutes into a blood transfusion, a client reports back pain, chills, and anxiety, with hypotension and dark urine. Which is the nurse's priority action?

b. These are signs of an acute hemolytic reaction — the most dangerous. STOP the transfusion immediately and keep the vein open with NS; then notify provider/blood bank. Never just slow it.
SATA

78. Which actions are required before starting a blood transfusion? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Two-nurse verification, informed consent, and an 18-gauge (or larger) catheter. Prime with NS only (D5W hemolyzes RBCs), and begin SLOWLY for the first 15 minutes while watching for a reaction.
Multiple choice

79. A client on IV fluids suddenly develops shortness of breath, sharp chest pain, and hypotension; the nurse suspects an air embolism. Which position is correct?

b. Left lateral with head down (left Trendelenburg) traps the air in the right ventricle, away from the pulmonary artery. Then give O2, call the provider, and monitor VS.
Multiple choice

80. While inserting a Foley in a female client, after 3 inches there is no urine return; the nurse suspects the catheter is in the vagina. Which is correct?

b. Leave the misplaced catheter as a landmark for the vaginal opening, then use a NEW sterile catheter for the urethra. Reusing the same catheter contaminates the field.
SATA

81. Discharge teaching for a client with a long-term indwelling catheter should include which instructions? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Bag below the bladder (prevents backflow), daily perineal/catheter care, and increased fluids. Never disconnect the closed system (infection risk); the separate-container rule is a facility practice, not self-care.
Priority

82. An elderly client is admitted with new-onset confusion, agitation, and urinary incontinence; temperature 37.2°C. Which is the nurse's priority action?

c. Older adults show atypical infection signs — new confusion/incontinence without fever. UTI is most common; obtain a specimen for UA/culture before antibiotics.
Multiple choice

83. When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing action is correct?

c. Secure the catheter to the thigh (female) or lower abdomen (male) to prevent tension/trauma. Never raise the bag above the bladder, irrigate only with orders, and sample from the port (never open the closed system).
Priority

84. A client informed about surgery is about to sign the consent form but says, "I'm not sure I understand what they told me." Which is the nurse's priority action?

c. The provider (not the nurse) explains the procedure/risks. If the client has questions, STOP and notify the provider — never pressure them to sign.
Multiple choice

85. A client with terminal cancer states they do not want to be resuscitated, but there is no written DNR order. Which action should the nurse take?

b. A DNR must be a written provider order to be valid. Notify the provider to get it written; until then, full resuscitation is required by law.
Multiple choice

86. A nurse discloses a client's HIV status to a family member without permission. This is an example of which violation?

c. Sharing protected health information (especially HIV status) with unauthorized people is a HIPAA violation. It requires the client's explicit written consent.
Priority

87. A client tells the nurse they want to leave against medical advice (AMA). The nurse should take which action first?

b. Notify the provider first so the client can be informed of the risks, then offer (not force) the AMA form. A competent adult may leave; physically restraining them is false imprisonment.
Multiple choice

88. A nurse questions a prescription that seems potentially harmful. Which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating?

c. Nonmaleficence = do no harm. Questioning a potentially harmful order demonstrates this. Autonomy = the client's right to decide; beneficence = do good; fidelity = keep promises.
Multiple choice

89. A nurse made a documentation error in the medical record. Which action should the nurse take?

c. Single line through the error, write "error" + initials + date, then the correct entry. Never white-out, erase, or obscure — the record is a legal document and must stay readable.
Therapeutic communication

90. A client scheduled for surgery says, "I'm really nervous about the anesthesia." Which therapeutic response is most appropriate?

c. An open-ended invitation to explore feelings is best. Options a and d are false reassurance; b is inappropriate self-disclosure that shifts focus to the nurse.
Multiple choice

91. A nurse is calling a provider to report a change in a client's condition. Which framework should the nurse use?

c. SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is the standardized format for reporting to providers. ADPIE = nursing process; RACE = fire; PASS = extinguisher.
SATA

92. Which are examples of non-therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply)

a, c, e. "Why" questions are judgmental, "don't worry" is false reassurance, and "I know how you feel" is inappropriate self-disclosure. Reflecting feelings (b) and open-ended questions (d) are therapeutic.
Multiple choice

93. Which is an example of correct objective documentation?

b. Objective = measurable/observable. "Ambulated 30 feet with steady gait" is factual. "Seems," "good day," and "OK" are subjective/vague — avoid them.
Multiple choice

94. A nurse is repositioning an immobile client. Which action demonstrates correct body mechanics?

d. Bend at the knees/hips, keep the back straight, and use a wide base. Bending at the waist and twisting cause back injury; feet together is an unstable base.
Multiple choice

95. A nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious client. Which action should the nurse take first?

b. Place an unconscious client in the lateral position for oral care to prevent aspiration, with suction available. Semi-Fowler's risks aspiration; lemon-glycerin swabs dry the mucosa.
Priority

96. A client is on bed rest for 5 days. Which intervention is the highest priority to prevent complications of immobility?

b. Repositioning q2h is highest priority — it prevents pressure injuries (the most immediate serious risk) and improves circulation and respiratory status. All options matter, but this addresses the most immediate risk.
Multiple choice

97. Which position should the nurse use for a client experiencing an air embolism during IV therapy?

c. Left lateral with head down (left Trendelenburg) traps the air bubble in the right ventricle, preventing it from entering the pulmonary artery. Call for help, give O2, monitor VS.
Multiple choice

98. Using the "CARD GP" mnemonic for complications of immobility, which complication is associated with the GI system?

c. CARD GP: Cardiovascular (DVT), Atelectasis/respiratory, Renal/GU, Depression, GI (constipation/ileus), Pressure injuries. GI prevention: fluids/fiber, stool softeners, early ambulation.
Multiple choice

99. Preoperative teaching for a client scheduled for abdominal surgery should include which information?

c. Splinting the incision with a pillow when coughing reduces pain and supports the wound. Clients are NPO (no breakfast), early ambulation is encouraged, and the incentive spirometer is used ~10x/hr while awake.
Multiple choice

100. In which order should assessment techniques be performed for the ABDOMEN?

b. The abdomen is the exception: Inspect → Auscultate → Percuss → Palpate. Palpation is last because pressing on the abdomen can alter bowel sounds.
Multiple choice

101. A nurse auscultates crackling, moist sounds in the lower lobes bilaterally. How should this be documented?

c. Crackles (rales) = crackling, moist sounds from fluid in the alveoli (pulmonary edema, pneumonia). Wheezes = high-pitched (bronchoconstriction); rhonchi = low-pitched secretions in large airways.
Multiple choice

102. Recommending annual blood pressure screenings is an example of which level of prevention?

b. Screening to detect disease early = secondary prevention. Primary = prevent disease (immunizations, lifestyle); tertiary = manage existing disease to prevent complications.
Multiple choice

103. According to Erikson, which behavior demonstrates age-appropriate development for a 2-year-old?

c. Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt (ages 1–3): the toddler asserts independence ("I do it myself"). Industry = school age; Identity = adolescent; Trust = infant.
Multiple choice

104. A client who signed a surgical consent states, just before going to the OR, that they have changed their mind. What should the nurse do?

b. A client can withdraw consent at any time, even after signing. Stop and notify the provider — the nurse never pressures the client to continue.
Questions 105–204 · from the exam-prep lecture recordings
Multiple choice

105. A nurse is caring for a client with fluid volume excess who is short of breath and edematous. The client is anxious and requests more information about the treatment plan. How should the nurse advocate for the client's rights?

d. A client requesting information has a right to it; the nurse must advocate for understanding. Options a-c all shut down communication. NCLEX favors "explain and ensure understanding."
Multiple choice

106. A community health nurse teaches older adults about preventing electrolyte imbalances. Which teaching point is most effective?

c. Older adults have a blunted thirst response, so "drink only when thirsty" is unsafe. Watch for absolutes and unjustified fluid restriction (<2-3 L/day needs a reason).
Multiple choice

107. A nurse documents intake/output over a 12-hour shift: 1 cup coffee, 2 cups water, 3 tbsp ice, emesis 120 mL. IV intake equals urine output. What is the fluid balance?

b. Ice chips count as half volume (3 tbsp = 45 mL → 22.5 mL). Because IV intake equals urine output they cancel out. Intake minus output = 622.5 mL.
Multiple choice

108. A client had major abdominal surgery with significant blood loss; BP 90/50, HR 120, cool clammy skin. Which IV fluid is most appropriate for immediate volume resuscitation?

c. An isotonic fluid stays in the intravascular space to support a hypotensive, hypovolemic client. Hypotonic and dextrose fluids leave the bloodstream too quickly.
Multiple choice

109. A client with severe pancreatitis develops carpopedal spasms the next day. Which lab finding is the nurse most likely to assess?

a. Calcium migrates to areas of inflammation in severe pancreatitis, lowering serum calcium. Muscle spasms/tingling (Trousseau's, Chvostek's) point to low calcium (or low magnesium).
SATA

110. After running a marathon, a client has diaphoresis and generalized weakness; Na 129, K 3.6. Which prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, f. Treat the abnormal (low sodium) and don't "fix" the normal potassium. Low sodium risks seizures, so seizure precautions and I&O monitoring are appropriate. 0.45% would worsen hyponatremia.
SATA

111. A nurse reinforces diet teaching after a sleeve gastrectomy. Which instructions reduce postoperative complications? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e, g. Separating fluids from meals prevents overdistension/dumping. Avoid concentrated sweets. Meal size should not exceed 1 cup (not 2), so f is a misconception.
Priority

112. A nurse assesses a client 36 hours after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Which finding is most concerning for an anastomotic leak?

b. Tachycardia (HR >100) is often the earliest sign of an anastomotic leak, appearing before fever or abdominal pain. The others are expected post-op.
SATA

113. A client is post-op day 3 after bariatric surgery; the nurse suspects dumping syndrome. Which findings support this? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d. Rapid fluid shift into the gut causes vasomotor symptoms-cramping, diarrhea, dizziness/tachycardia. Look for opposites: bradycardia and constipation rule out.
Priority

114. Which psychosocial factor is most important to assess before a client undergoes bariatric surgery?

b. The surgery demands permanent lifestyle change; a strong support system provides the emotional/practical help needed for long-term success.
Multiple choice

115. A client is 1 day post total hip replacement. Which intervention is most effective in preventing VTE?

c. Early ambulation is the gold standard-it directly addresses venous stasis (Virchow's triad) by promoting venous return. Stockings are passive.
Priority

116. A client has decreased urine output in the immediate post-op period. What should the nurse do first?

a. Anesthesia can cause retention. A quick, noninvasive bladder scan tells you whether urine is being made but not released; start with least invasive. If the action changes based on the assessment, assess first.
Priority

117. During general anesthesia a client suddenly develops HR 167, BP 92/57, temp 40°C (104°F). Which action should the nurse prioritize?

a. Dantrolene is the only drug that treats the underlying muscle-metabolism crisis of malignant hyperthermia. Cooling is only supportive; acetaminophen won't touch heat from muscle breakdown.
Multiple choice

118. A terminally ill, competent client whose family insists on aggressive treatment says, "I just want to be done with all of this and be comfortable." What is the nurse's best response?

b. A competent client is the decision maker. The nurse supports the client speaking with the provider, without acting as intermediary or applying family pressure.
SATA

119. While completing a medication reconciliation, the family asks why they keep answering the same questions. The nurse explains it is necessary because... (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e. Med rec is done on admission/transfer/discharge, needs two sources, and reduces treatment/charting errors. Option c is false.
Multiple choice

120. A client with diabetes cries, "I cannot stand the thought of giving myself these shots for the rest of my life." What is the best response?

d. Psychosocial answers explore the client's feelings. Identifying the specific fear (e.g., needle size) lets the nurse address it. Option a is threatening; b and c are unrealistic long-term.
SATA

121. A nurse teaches a client with a history of hyperkalemia which foods to avoid. Which foods should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, f. Avocado, banana, potato, and orange are high in potassium. Lettuce (mostly fiber/water) and apples are relatively low.
Multiple choice

122. An older adult with CKD has a new serum creatinine of 2.3 (normal 0.6-1.2). What action should the nurse take?

c. It's a chronic, non-emergent elevation from weak kidneys. Reviewing for nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs, aminoglycosides) is appropriate; extra fluids won't help and could cause overload. Creatinine does not rise significantly with normal aging.
Multiple choice

123. A nurse cares for a client in respiratory alkalosis. Which intervention is most appropriate?

b. Hyperventilation blows off CO2 (acid), raising pH. Slowing breathing lets CO2 rise back to normal-treating the cause. Bicarb would worsen alkalosis.
Multiple choice

124. ABG: pH 7.32, PaCO2 42, HCO3 18. Which imbalance should the nurse identify?

d. Low pH = acidosis; normal CO2 rules out respiratory cause; low bicarb = metabolic. Normal CO2 means compensation hasn't begun.
Multiple choice

125. A client with type 1 diabetes has nausea/vomiting, high glucose, rapid deep breathing with fruity breath, hot dry skin. Which ABG best reflects this?

b. DKA causes metabolic acidosis-low pH with low bicarb; CO2 may fall as respiratory compensation (Kussmaul).
Multiple choice

126. ABG: pH 7.32, PaCO2 61, HCO3 30. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

b. Respiratory acidosis with partial compensation (low pH, high CO2, elevated bicarb) fits chronic CO2 retention in COPD.
Multiple choice

127. A client with intractable vomiting for 3 days has ABG pH 7.52, PaCO2 48, HCO3 36. Which imbalance best explains this?

a. Loss of gastric acid → high pH, high bicarb = metabolic alkalosis. pH is still abnormal, so compensation is only partial.
Priority

128. A 29-year-old presents with sudden SOB, chest tightness, dizziness that began before a nursing exam; pH 7.5, PaCO2 28, HCO3 24, RR 34, SpO2 99% RA, HR 112, alert/anxious/trembling. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

c. This is a panic attack causing respiratory alkalosis; rebreathing CO2 with a paper bag restores acid balance-least invasive first.
Priority

129. A post-op client on IV morphine PCA reports pain 8/10, is difficult to arouse, RR 8. Which action should the nurse take first?

b. RR 8 with decreased LOC is opioid-induced respiratory depression; naloxone reverses it. Breathing takes precedence over pain; monitor for rebound since opioids outlast naloxone.
SATA

130. A hospitalized client with moderate pain says, "I want to try something other than medications." Which nursing interventions support pain management? (Select all that apply)

b, c, f. The client wants non-drug options, so a and d (medications) are out. Ice on impaired circulation causes vasoconstriction/injury. Guided imagery, relaxation breathing, and distraction reduce sympathetic activation.
Multiple choice

131. Chart review for a 55-year-old with osteoarthritis intolerant of opioids: bed rest → increased stiffness; cold therapy → discomfort; education → interested; heat therapy → increased ROM; opioids → offered. Which intervention was most effective in decreasing the client's pain?

d. Increased range of motion is the key cue-improved mobility directly indicates decreased pain in osteoarthritis, and the client is opioid-intolerant.
Multiple choice

132. A client with actinic keratosis asks what it means for their health. How should the nurse respond?

c. Actinic keratosis is precancerous and can progress to squamous cell carcinoma; the nurse educates about cause and prevention without alarming or dismissing.
Multiple choice

133. A client with plaque psoriasis makes which statement that indicates understanding of teaching?

c. Removing scales while moist lets topical steroids reach the plaque, not dead skin. Sun actually helps psoriasis; daily long-term steroid use should be avoided; it's a chronic condition.
SATA

134. A nurse teaches a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema). Which interventions should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e, f, h. Steroids to flare areas, moisturize twice daily, immunosuppressant creams for maintenance, remove allergens, antihistamines, and wet wraps for severe flares are correct. Daily bleach baths aren't routine, and phototherapy/sun can actually help-so g is wrong.
Priority

135. During discharge planning after a total laryngectomy, which intervention should the nurse prioritize when collaborating with home health?

b. The client is left with a stoma requiring ongoing management. The others are unnecessary/nonsensical (no chemo, no home radiation, no infection).
SATA

136. A client newly diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea is taught about CPAP. Which statements should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d, f. CPAP is used whenever sleeping, mask fit varies, daily cleaning is needed, and consistent use lowers BP/fatigue. Symptoms recur if stopped; don't remove the mask mid-sleep.
Multiple choice

137. A care plan for a client with chronic upper respiratory issues includes psychosocial interventions. Which most appropriately reflects understanding of psychosocial factors?

b. Psychosocial care supports the client's emotional/mental health; behavioral counseling addresses addiction. Isolation, alcohol, and limiting activity are harmful.
Multiple choice

138. A client who had radiation for laryngeal cancer reports difficulty swallowing and decreased taste. Which intervention is most appropriate?

a. Soft, moist foods ease swallowing and enhance taste. Alcohol-based mouthwash is painful post-radiation; avoid definitive timeframes; oral hygiene should be frequent.
Priority

139. A client has anterior epistaxis. Which is the priority action?

a. Pinching the soft (cartilaginous) part of the nose for 10-15 minutes stops ~90% of anterior nosebleeds. Blowing dislodges clots; tilting back just redirects blood down the throat; the bridge is bone and can't be compressed.
SATA

140. A nurse teaches about upper respiratory infections. Which are potential complications of a URI? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, d, e, g, h. Abscess/infection can obstruct the airway, spread to the brain (meningitis) or blood (sepsis), cause epistaxis, rebound congestion, laryngitis/aphonia, and dysphagia. Pyelonephritis is not a URI complication (strep can cause glomerulonephritis, not pyelonephritis).
Priority

141. A nurse assesses four clients with pneumonia. Which should the nurse see first?

c. New-onset confusion/restlessness can signal hypoxemia-an ABC/neuro change. Fever, chills, cough, and fatigue are expected with pneumonia.
Multiple choice

142. A client presents from home with fever, productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, and crackles in the lower lobes. Which action promotes safety and infection control?

b. Typical pneumonia requires droplet precautions (surgical mask). No cue for airborne (TB/measles/varicella). Don't restrict fluids without reason; supine worsens breathing.
Multiple choice

143. A nurse teaches a client about the PPD (Mantoux) TB skin test. Which statement indicates understanding?

a. It's a delayed reaction read at 48-72 hours; induration (not redness) is measured. A positive test means prior exposure, not active disease.
Multiple choice

144. A client with acute respiratory failure has significant anxiety and fear. Which intervention best addresses psychosocial needs?

a. Psychosocial care means emotional support for everyone; the others target physical needs or apply only to select clients.
Priority

145. A client has anxiety, pleuritic chest pain, yellow-tinged sputum, fever, and shortness of breath. Which nursing action is the priority?

c. Sitting up (high Fowler's) is the fastest, easiest breathing intervention-drops the diaphragm and improves oxygenation, often before oxygen is needed. ABC priority.
Multiple choice

146. A client is admitted with a spontaneous pneumothorax. Which findings are expected?

d. A collapsed lung tearing from the pleura causes sharp pleuritic pain and SOB. Hemoptysis/night sweats = TB; pink frothy sputum = CHF; orthopnea/PND = pulmonary edema.
Multiple choice

147. A client with a chest tube on water-seal drainage has absent tidaling and bubbling in the water-seal chamber, with increased SOB and chest discomfort. Which action should the nurse take?

c. Absent tidaling/bubbling with worsening symptoms means the system isn't communicating (kink/occlusion), not full re-expansion; check tubing and notify the provider.
Multiple choice

148. A nurse teaches students about ARDS interventions. Which statement indicates effective teaching?

b. ARDS fills the alveoli with inflammation/fluid; positive-pressure mechanical ventilation is typically required. No collapsed lung → no chest tube; diuretics/beta blockers don't fix it.
SATA

149. A client with COPD in acute respiratory failure has severe SOB, confusion, and cyanosis. Which prescribed interventions are appropriate immediately? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e, g. Cyanosis warrants oxygen; respiratory failure needs ventilation, ABG monitoring, bronchodilators, and upright positioning. Deep breathing (they're already at max volumes), nutrition (not now), and diuretics (not a COPD fluid problem) are inappropriate.
Multiple choice

150. A client with latent TB infection asks why they must take medication if they have no symptoms. What is the best response?

b. Treating latent TB (6-12 months) reduces the chance of reactivation to active TB as immunity wanes with age. Options a and c say the same thing (both wrong).
SATA

151. A client after an MVC has paradoxical chest movement, dyspnea, and decreased O2 saturation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e. Paradoxical movement = flail chest. Provide oxygen, upright positioning, prepare for ventilation, and monitor for failure/shock. Coughing/deep breathing is cruel with rib fractures; chest compressions cause harm (splinting, not compression).
Priority

152. A ventilated client with acute respiratory failure has SaO2 88%, RR 32, is agitated and trying to remove the ET tube, and the ventilator alarms are sounding. Which action is the highest priority?

d. With unstable vitals, assess the patient first (disconnect and bag if needed) rather than the equipment; prioritize the patient over the machine.
Multiple choice

153. A COPD client in acute respiratory failure is trended over 4 hours (SpO2 falling to 86%, RR rising to 30, mental status alert→lethargic, ABGs pH 7.35→7.28, CO2 50→60, O2 70→58). Which trend is most indicative of the need for intubation?

d. Rising CO2 (retention) means the client can't ventilate; it drives falling pH and CO2 narcosis, forcing intubation. Low O2 can be managed with escalating oxygen, so it's not the "most" indicative.
SATA

154. A 68-year-old with emphysema has SOB and a productive cough. Which nursing actions best support respiratory status and well-being? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Hand hygiene and sputum disposal prevent infection; vaccines protect weak lungs. Don't set an arbitrary high O2 flow in COPD (CO2 narcosis risk), and don't restrict ambulation (muscle loss, DVTs).
SATA

155. A client with COPD is wheezing, coughing, and rubbing their chest. Which non-pharmacologic comfort measures could the nurse use? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d. Pursed-lip breathing, tripod positioning, and guided imagery ease acute discomfort. "Regular physical activity" isn't appropriate in the acute moment, and bronchodilators are pharmacologic.
Priority

156. A client with dyspnea, nasal flaring, accessory muscle use, RR 35, and a history of asthma. Which intervention should the nurse complete first?

b. Asthma is bronchoconstriction-open the airway fast with a short-acting beta agonist (albuterol). X-ray adds nothing; ABG/IV steroids come later (steroids take 6-12 hours).
SATA

157. A nurse educates parents of children with asthma. Which topics should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e, f, g, h. Food additives, animal dander, NSAIDs, and various triggers can provoke asthma; spacers deliver more drug; teach albuterol (jittery/tremor/tachycardia) and inhaled corticosteroid (thrush-rinse mouth) side effects. Warm environments actually help (many relocate to warmer climates).
Multiple choice

158. Which client is at greatest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism?

d. Cancer increases blood viscosity/hypercoagulability (Virchow's triad), raising DVT/PE risk. The others don't.
SATA

159. A nurse assesses a client at risk for PE. Which findings support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e, g. A clot lodging in the lung causes sudden dyspnea, pleuritic pain, hemoptysis, tachypnea, and a feeling of doom. Sympathetic activation makes them tachycardic and pale/diaphoretic-not bradycardic or warm/flushed.
Priority

160. A client with a known small PE develops SOB, chest pain, and O2 saturation 86%. What is the nurse's priority action?

b. ABC-an O2 sat of 86% needs oxygen first; the provider expects it addressed before being called. CT already confirmed the PE; fluids come after oxygen if hypotensive.
Multiple choice

161. A client with chronic lung disease develops which symptoms suggesting cor pulmonale?

b. Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure from chronic lung disease; blood backs up into the venous system → JVD and peripheral edema (hepatomegaly too).
SATA

162. A client with PE is prescribed a heparin infusion. Which actions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, e. Monitor aPTT (goal ~2x normal), watch for bleeding, keep the antidote (protamine) available, and use a soft toothbrush. Avoid IM injections (bleeding into muscle). (Instructor added daily CBC to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.)
Multiple choice

163. Which psychosocial intervention is most appropriate for a client with lung cancer?

b. Psychosocial care connects the client to emotional support/resources. Exercise and physical-symptom focus aren't psychosocial; advising secrecy is inappropriate.
Priority

164. A client with a 40 pack-year history has a persistent non-productive cough, hemoptysis, hoarseness, weight loss x 3 months, and a solitary pulmonary nodule on x-ray. Which is the highest-priority nursing assessment?

b. Coughing blood and hoarseness threaten oxygenation-ABC. Night sweats/travel suggest TB; the others aren't the immediate priority.
SATA

165. A nurse assesses a client with suspected lung cancer. Which findings indicate advanced disease or complications? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, d. Lung cancer metastasizes to liver (jaundice), bone (pain), lymph nodes, and brain (seizures; also seizures from ADH-secreting tumors causing hyponatremia). Fever/chills indicate infection, not advanced disease-don't go down that rabbit hole.
Priority

166. A client with lung cancer develops facial swelling, distended neck veins, and dyspnea. Which action should the nurse complete first?

a. These are signs of superior vena cava obstruction (an oncologic emergency). Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to improve venous drainage immediately; definitive treatment is radiation/steroids.
Multiple choice

167. A client with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) makes which statement indicating understanding of treatment?

c. SCLC is rarely amenable to surgery; chemotherapy is primary, with radiation and immunotherapy also used. Watch absolutes like "only" and "rarely."
Multiple choice

168. A client takes hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily for hypertension. Which lab is most important to monitor?

a. Thiazides waste potassium, causing hypokalemia; potassium is the most important value (teach potassium-rich foods/supplements).
Multiple choice

169. An older adult newly diagnosed with hypertension asks for guidance. Which educational point should the nurse emphasize?

b. Hypertension is usually asymptomatic ("silent killer"), so daily meds are essential. Activity lowers BP; monitoring shouldn't depend on symptoms; lifestyle changes are part of treatment.
Priority

170. A client presents with BP 198/118, headache, and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

c. Symptomatic severe hypertension = hypertensive emergency; prepare for IV antihypertensives (lower gradually, ~20%). It can't wait an hour; supine can aggravate it.
SATA

171. A client with pulmonary artery hypertension. Which findings indicate complications of disease progression? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e. Right ventricular failure backs blood into the venous system → JVD, edema, hepatomegaly; low forward flow causes exertional syncope. It doesn't cause a dry cough, and output decreases (not increases).
Priority

172. A nurse on telemetry cares for four clients. Which should be assessed first?

a. "Sudden" chest pain with only partial relief from nitro = ongoing ischemia (possible unstable angina/MI). The others are stable/non-urgent.
Priority

173. A client 2 hours after cardiac catheterization with stent has a rapidly expanding hematoma at the access site and a drop in blood pressure. Which set of interventions should the nurse implement first?

d. Manual pressure controls the expanding hematoma; outlining it tracks expansion, and EKG monitors the heart. (High Fowler's could worsen it; keep supine after cath.) Note: post-cath back/abdominal pain + hypotension suggests aortic puncture/hemorrhage.
Multiple choice

174. A client with frequent angina asks about non-pharmacologic measures during an acute episode. Which is most appropriate?

b. Rest reduces cardiac oxygen demand during ischemic chest pain. Walking increases demand; Valsalva stresses the heart; cold can cause vasoconstriction/esophageal spasm.
SATA

175. A client with symptomatic sinus bradycardia has HR 42. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

a, b, d, f. "Symptomatic" bradycardia needs atropine and/or pacing, monitoring of BP/LOC, and IV access. Trendelenburg is no longer recommended (use supine with legs elevated); amiodarone is for fast rhythms.
Priority

176. A 62-year-old with chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, nausea; BP 156/92, HR 102, RR 22, O2 94%, ECG shows ST-segment elevation. Which initial medication should the nurse administer?

c. Aspirin is the first-line initial med in STEMI/ACS-it immediately inhibits platelet aggregation. Heparin, metoprolol, and furosemide come later or only if indicated.
Multiple choice

177. A cardiac monitor shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with a fibrillating baseline where P waves should be. Which rhythm is this?

c. Absent P waves with a fibrillating line and irregularly irregular QRS = atrial fibrillation. Sinus tach is regular with P waves; VT has wide "tombstone" QRS; VF is chaotic squiggles.
SATA

178. A client recently developed atrial fibrillation. Which medications may be included in the treatment plan? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d, f, g, h. Anticoagulants (warfarin, apixaban, rivaroxaban) prevent stroke; diltiazem and digoxin control rate; amiodarone controls rhythm. Metformin and lisinopril treat unrelated comorbidities.
Multiple choice

179. A client with a newly implanted ICD asks how they'll know it's working properly. What is the best response?

c. Remote monitoring plus scheduled follow-ups is the standard. A shock means a dangerous rhythm was detected (or malfunction)-not a routine "good sign."
SATA

180. A client is newly diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy. What instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, f. Daily weights and reporting rapid gains detect fluid retention; fluid restriction is appropriate in heart failure; monitor for pulmonary edema. Alcohol worsens contractility/HTN; it's a chronic condition needing daily meds (watch "only").
Multiple choice

181. A client newly diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?

b. Right ventricular failure (cor pulmonale) backs blood up → edema, ascites, and increased (not decreased) JVP; low forward flow causes tachycardia (not brady). It's an arterial issue, not an alveolar/breath-sound one.
SATA

182. A nurse assesses a client with left-sided heart failure. Which findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)

b, c, d, f, g. Left-sided failure backs fluid into the lungs → crackles, dyspnea, PND, weight gain, elevated BNP. Peripheral edema is right-sided (don't assume progression); they're fluid overloaded, not dry.
SATA

183. A client is admitted with acute pulmonary edema secondary to heart failure. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate in emergent management? (Select all that apply)

b, c, d, e, f. High-flow O2, furosemide (diuresis), BiPAP/CPAP (push fluid out of alveoli), legs dependent (reduce venous return), and nitroglycerin (vasodilation/reduced preload). Supine would worsen breathing-they must sit up.
Multiple choice

184. A client with aortic stenosis is being discharged. What discharge instructions should the nurse provide?

a. A stenotic aortic valve can't increase output to maintain BP with sudden position changes or exertion-risking syncope. High sodium and Valsalva increase cardiac workload; vigorous exercise can cause exertional fainting.
Multiple choice

185. A nurse assesses a client with mitral stenosis. Which finding would the nurse expect?

b. The mitral valve opens during diastole, so a stenotic valve makes a diastolic murmur. Reduced LV filling → weak/thready pulses and no elevated systolic BP.
SATA

186. A nurse monitors a client with chronic mitral regurgitation. Which findings indicate signs of this condition? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e, f. A leaky mitral valve sends blood backward into the left atrium/lungs → crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, and a systolic murmur; reduced forward flow causes fatigue. Decreased urine output requires too many "what-ifs."
Multiple choice

187. A 25-year-old has chest pain that worsens with deep breaths and improves when leaning forward, and had a virus a few weeks ago. Which diagnostic exam is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?

b. Post-viral pleuritic pain that improves leaning forward = pericarditis; the ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. Troponin (MI), chest x-ray, and D-dimer (PE) won't confirm it.
Priority

188. A client is receiving long-term IV antibiotics for infective endocarditis. Which intervention should be the priority?

a. Vegetations can embolize (stroke, ischemic limb, digits). Monitoring for embolic complications is the priority; the others are appropriate but not urgent.
SATA

189. A nurse plans care for a client with fatigue, chest pain, dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema, and an S3 heart sound (after a viral illness). Which nursing interventions should be included? (Select all that apply)

a, b, e. Post-viral myocarditis leading to heart failure (S3, edema): rest, monitor for heart failure, and assess rhythm (arrhythmia risk). NSAIDs cause fluid retention/are cardiac/renal-unfriendly; high-intensity exercise is harmful; sodium worsens fluid overload.
Priority

190. A client has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which is the priority nursing action?

b. Chronic hypertension enlarges the aneurysm toward rupture; long-term BP control is the priority. An unruptured AAA is usually asymptomatic (no syncope). Upper chest/neck pain relates to thoracic aneurysm.
Multiple choice

191. A client with chronic venous insufficiency makes which statement that indicates understanding of teaching?

a. Crossing legs compresses the popliteal vein and worsens edema. Walking improves venous return; compression stockings are worn most of the day to prevent (not just treat) swelling; hot baths vasodilate and worsen edema.
SATA

192. A client with Raynaud's phenomenon is prescribed calcium channel blockers. What education should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

c, e. CCBs vasodilate-watch for orthostatic hypotension; keeping extremities warm prevents attacks. Don't expect "immediate resolution of all," it's a chronic condition (not just acute attacks), and mild headaches typically resolve without stopping the drug.
SATA

193. A nurse plans care for a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which interventions support psychosocial integrity? (Select all that apply)

a, c, d. Psychosocial answers promote autonomy, trust, and emotional health. Social isolation harms mental health; ignoring the problem doesn't help.
Multiple choice

194. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication?

a. Erythropoietin raises RBC production, thickening blood-causing hypertension (and clotting risks: DVT/PE/stroke). Rising hemoglobin is the expected therapeutic effect.
SATA

195. A nurse assesses a client with urge incontinence. Which findings would be expected? (Select all that apply)

a. Urge incontinence is a sudden, urgent need with involuntary loss. Leakage with cough/sneeze = stress; dysuria = UTI; nocturia/incomplete emptying = overflow. (A SATA can have one correct answer.)
Priority

196. A client with CKD has 4+ peripheral edema, crackles, shortness of breath, and BP 178/98. What is the priority nursing intervention?

d. These are fluid-overload/ABC cues; a loop diuretic relieves pulmonary congestion. Increasing fluids/potassium worsens overload/hyperkalemia; supine worsens breathing with crackles.
Multiple choice

197. A client is suspected of having autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which findings would the nurse expect?

b. Large kidney cysts cause flank pain and can bleed into the urine (hematuria). Brady/dry skin = hypothyroid; jaundice/clay stools = biliary; petechiae/bleeding gums = platelet disorder.
Multiple choice

198. A client with chronic renal failure is taught about managing fluid overload. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

b. CKD clients are usually on fluid (and often salt) restriction-unlimited fluids overload weak kidneys. The others are correct statements.
Priority

199. A nurse assesses the AV graft of a client with CKD before hemodialysis and notes no palpable thrill or audible bruit. What is the priority action?

c. Absent thrill/bruit means no blood flow-the graft is clotted and unusable, a medical emergency. Notify the nephrologist (may need a new site/vascular intervention).
SATA

200. A nurse teaches a female client about preventing cystitis. Which risk factors put the client at risk for a UTI? (Select all that apply)

a, c, e, f. Instrumentation (cystoscopy), shorter urethra, wiping back-to-front, and glucosuria (diabetes) increase UTI risk. Adequate fluids and voiding after sex are protective.
SATA

201. A nurse recognizes which interventions reduce the risk of a CAUTI (catheter-associated UTI)? (Select all that apply)

b, e, f, g. Keep the bag below the bladder (no backflow), remove the catheter ASAP, keep tubing unkinked, and do perineal care. Prophylactic antibiotics aren't used; monitoring for fever detects (not prevents) infection; routine irrigation breaks the closed system.
Multiple choice

202. A client presents with severe pain, nausea, and hematuria. Which finding indicates renal colic?

c. A stone stuck in the ureter causes intense flank pain radiating to the groin with nausea/hematuria. Epigastric-to-back = pancreatitis; RUQ after fatty meal = cholecystitis; central distension/vomiting = bowel obstruction.
SATA

203. A nurse assesses a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which findings indicate developing peritonitis? (Select all that apply)

a, b, c, e, g. Peritonitis causes cloudy dialysate (WBCs), abdominal pain/tenderness (guarding, board-like abdomen), elevated WBC, fever, and nausea/vomiting (ileus). Clear straw-colored effluent is normal; infection causes tachycardia (not bradycardia).
Multiple choice

204. A nurse educates a client with hepatic encephalopathy on dietary modifications. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a. Hepatic encephalopathy involves ammonia buildup (from protein breakdown) that the failing liver can't convert to urea. Clients follow a low-protein diet, so eating chicken (high protein) would raise ammonia-indicating a need for further teaching. (The others are carbohydrates.)

Combined NCLEX-style practice bank for NUR198 study. Questions pooled from your ATI Fundamentals review, the Deep-Dive guide, the Interactive Quiz, and lecture recordings. Verify against your course materials and the ATI online rationales.

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